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021.Formative_1_fluid_student.doc
Formative 1 1. Forces controlling the movement of water between the capillary and interstitial spaces include all of the following EXCEPT: A. arterial blood pressure B. capillary colloidal osmotic pressure C. interstital fluid pressure D. tissue colloidal osmotic pressure 2. Capillary colloidal osmotic pressure is controlled by the: A. plasma proteins B. red blood cells C. serum sodium concentration D. white blood cells 3. Edema can occur as the result of: A. a decrease in capillary filtration pressure B. low albumin levels in the blood C. increased capillary colloidal osmotic pressure D. decreased capillary permeability 4. The most reliable method for measuring a loss or gain of body water is: A. change in body weight B. intake and output C. tissue turgor D. serum sodium levels 5. Burns causing third-space shift are likely to cause: A. hyponatremia B. hypovolemia C. hypervolemia D. osmosis 6. Total body water differs with age. It is greatest in: A. infants and small children vs older persons B. men vs women C. lean vs obese persons D. A and C E. A, B, and C 7. The main source of serum bicarbonate is: A. absorption of dietary bicarbonate B. carbon dioxide resulting from cellular metabolism C. medications containing sodium bicarbonate D. synthesis by the liver 8. Compensatory mechanisms for acid-base imbalances include: A. increased respiratory rate in metabolic alkalosis B. decreased respiratory rate during a prolonged period of vomiting followed by nasogastric suctioning C. Kussmaul breathing (Hyperventilation that is marked by an increase in rate and depth, associated with severe acidosis of diabetic or renal origin) in emphysema D. increased respiratory rate in pulmonary emboli 9. In which way is potassium and/or calcium affected in acid-base imbalances? A. In acidosis as excess extracellular hydrogen moves into cells, potassium leaves the cell B. In alkalosis as pH increases, hypercalcemia occurs C. In alkalosis, hyperkalemia occurs D. In acidosis, hypokalemia and hypocalcemia occur 10. With sedation and increasing pulmonary infarction over the hours following the acute pulmonary embolism, what acid-base imbalance is likely to occur? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis 11. Which substance is found in urine normally? A. Creatinine B. Red blood cells C. Glucose D. Plasma proteins 12. Which one of the following blood tests is used as a measure of glomerular filtration rate and renal function? A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. Serum creatinine C. Serum potassium D. Serum ammonia 13. The endocrine functions of the kidney include: A. activation of vitamin D B. conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system C. production of erythropoietin D. A and C E. A, B, and C 14. Trauma and shock result in: A. renal perfusion B. hypertension C. the interruption of renal blood flow D. a shunting of blood to the kidneys 15. Hemorrhage can lead to: A. prerenal failure B. postrenal failure C. intrarenal failure D. A and C E. A, B, and C 16. Acute tubular necrosis is characterized by: A. destructive changes in the tubular epithelium B. intratubular obstructions C. post-tubular obstruction D. acute swelling of the glomeruli 17. The four stages of chronic renal failure are based on: A. the degree of renal perfusion (blood pressure) B. the glomerular filtration rate C. the level of consciousness D. the specific gravity of urine 18. One of the early signs of renal failure is: A. an increase in nitrogenous wastes in the blood B. metabolic acidosis C. hyperkalemia D. edema 19. The nocturia that often presents as an early symptom of renal failure can best be explained in terms of: A. loss of bladder tone B. decreased ability to excrete urine C. loss of ability to concentrate urine D. increased filtering of water in the glomerulus 20. The development of hypertension in a person with renal failure is largely related to: A. increased loss of albumin in the urine B. increased intravascular fluid and the renin-angiotension mechanism C. increased levels of ADH D. elevated blood urea nitrogen levels, which are present in renal failure Formative 2 Answers 21. The OVERALL function of the kidneys is to: A. eliminate water B. eliminate electrolytes C. regulate the composition of the extracellular fluid D. eliminate metabolic acids and conserve bicarbonate 22. The glomerular capillaries in the kidney differ from capillaries in other parts of the body in terms of: A. being located between two arterioles rather than between an arteriole and a venule B. the principles of capillary fluid exchange C. their higher intracapillary pressure D. A and C E. A, B, and C 23. Compared to cortical nephrons, juxtomedullary nephrons are characterized as: A. penetrating the entire length of the medulla B. shorter, thicker loops of Henle C. nonexistent in the cortex of the kidney D. making up 85% of all nephrons 24. Most of the water, electrolytes, glucose, and amino acids are reabsorbed in which one of the following structures? A. The glomerulus B. The proximal tubule C. The loop of Henle D. The distal tubule E. The collecting duct 25. Antidiuretic hormone acts at the level of which one of the following kidney structures to increase urine concentration? A. Glomerulus B. Proximal tubule C. Loop of henle D. Collecting tubule 26. Blood urea nitrogen can be used as test for renal insufficiency, but is less specific than serum creatinine levels. The normal BUN: creatinine ratio for a medium-sized adult female is: A. B. C. 25:1 D. 27. Which statement is FALSE concerning intrarenal failure? A. It most often results from acute tubular necrosis. B. It results from hypoxia-related prerenal failure. C. It results from exposure of the kidney to toxic substances. D. It is easily treated and rarely results in death. 28. Older men are most prone to: A. prerenal failure B. postrenal failure C. intrarenal failure D. acute tubular necrosis 29. Most cases of acute tubular necrosis are caused by: A. acute glomerulonephritis B. ischemia or nephrotoxic agents C. pyelonephritis D. hypertension 30. The four stages of chronic renal failure are based on: A. the degree of renal perfusion (blood pressure) B. the glomerular filtration rate C. the level of consciousness D. the specific gravity of urine 31. One of the early signs of renal failure is: A. an increase in nitrogenous wastes in the blood B. metabolic acidosis C. hyperkalemia D. edema 32. Serum potassium is usually elevated in renal failure. This could most likely be attributed to the fact that: A. most potassium losses occur through the kidney B. potassium is the chief cation in the extracellular fluid C. potassium is absorbed in the kidney D. potassium is lost in the stool E. potassium is contained in blood urea nitrogen 33. The impaired synthesis of erythropoietin and the effects of uremia in chronic renal failure cause: A. bleeding tendencies B. polycythemia C. anemia D. excessive clotting 34. Kidney damage resulting from urinary tract obstruction is usually the result of: A. back pressure and ischemia B. infection C. irritation from urine stasis D. hypertension 35. Which of the following predisposing factors is NOT associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)? A. Urine stasis B. Impaired immune function C. The washout phenomenon D. Ability of the infecting bacteria to adhere to the epithelial surface of the urinary tract 36. The function of the mucociliary blanket that lines the conducting airways is to: A. entrap dust and other foreign matter from the airways B. increase the ease with which air moves through the airways C. moisten the air as it moves through the airways D. A and C E. A, B, and C 37. The term vital capacity refers to: A. the amount of air taken in and exhaled during normal respiration B. maximal amount of air that can be taken in and exhaled with forceful expiration C. the amount of air that remains in the lung after forceful expiration D. the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after normal inspiration 38. In which one of the following situations would the diffusing capacity of the lung be impaired because of a decrease in surface area? A. Pneumonia B. Surgical removal of a lung C. Pulmonary edema D. Anemia 39. Most of the carbon dioxide that is produced as a result of tissue metabolism is carried in the blood in the form of: A. dissolved carbon dioxide B. carboxihemoglobin C. bicarbonate 40. The term dyspnea implies: A. a condition of labored breathing B. inability to breath easily when lying down C. subjective complaints of breathlessness or difficult breathing D. irregular breathing 41. Atelectasis refers to: A. collapse of an entire lung B. fluid in the pleural space C. inflammation of the pleura D. incomplete expansion of a portion of the lung 42. Bronchial asthma has been defined as having three components, which include: A. airway inflammation B. decreased airway responsiveness C. irreversible airway obstruction D. a bronchodilator component 43. Signs and symptoms of bronchial asthma in children include: A. tight and nonproductive cough B. nocturnal wheezing and signs of airway obstruction C. dyspnea and prolonged expiration D. A and C E. A, B, and C 44. Persons with COPD have a decrease in their FEV 1.0 that is measured during pulmonary function studies. The FEV 1.0 refers to: A. the amount of air that can be exchanged during normal breathing B. the maximal amount of air that is exhaled in one second C. the maximal amount of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration D. the total volume of air that is contained in the lungs 45. Which of the following hormonal secretions reduce blood glucose? A. Epinephrine B. Glucagon C. Insulin D. Cortisol 46. Type 1A diabetes mellitus is caused by: A. an absolute insulin deficiency due to immune-mediated destruction of the beta cells B. destruction of circulating insulin C. few or defective insulin receptors on cells D. impaired insulin secretion by the beta cells 47. Persons with type 2 diabetes are said to be ketosis resistant because they: A. are unable to convert fatty acids to ketone B. usually have sufficient insulin to prevent fat breakdown C. have sufficient insulin to permit glucose transport into fat cells D. they have insufficient fat stores 48. The acidosis that occurs in persons with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes results from: A. excess sugar in the blood B. presence of excess ketones in the blood C. hypoventilation and the presence of excess carbon dioxide in the blood D. lactic acid in the blood 49. Kussmaul breathing, which is often observed in persons with ketoacidosis, can be viewed as a compensatory mechanism in which the increased ventilation attempts to: A. increase the oxygen content of blood in an effort to burn the excess glucose B. blow off excess carbon dioxide in an effort to increase pH C. increase the respiratory loss of ketone bodies as a means of controlling pH D. increase the oxygen supply to the brain 50. Which part of the circulatory system contain the greatest amount of blood? A. The systemic arteries B. The systemic veins C. The systemic capillaries D. The pulmonary arteries and veins 51. The openings of the coronary arteries are located in the: A. Pulmonary artery B. Left ventricle under mitral valve C. Aorta above the aortic valve D. next to the coronary sinus in the right atrium 52. During the isovolumetric contraction period of the cardiac cycle: A. both the atrioventricular and pulmonic and aortic valves are closed B. there is an abrupt rise in ventricular pressures C. blood continues to enter the atria D. A and C E. A, B, and C 53. The greatest filling of the ventricles occurs during the: A. first third of diastole B. last third of systole C. mid-portion of diastole D. last third of diastole 54. In rapid tachycardia, the cardiac output may fall due to: A. negative inotropic effect of hypoxia B. reduction in time for diastolic filling C. reduction in venous return D. all of the above 55. Which one of the following exerts the greatest effect on blood flow? A. Vessel radius B. Vessel length C. Change in blood pressure D. Blood viscosity 56. The rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism, the release of ADH, and the renal-body fluid system increase blood pressure by: A. influencing the quantity and quality of the urine produced B. influencing the tone of the vascular smooth muscle in arteries C. influencing the amount of water retained in the body D. all of the above 57. Which one of the following lipoproteins is the major carrier of cholesterol? A. Chylomicrons B. VLDLs C. LDLs D. HDLs 58. Lifestyle factors that increase the risk of atherosclerosis by producing a decrease in HDL include: A. smoking cigarettes B. moderate alcohol use C. control of blood glucose in diabetes D. regular exercise 59. An embolus can involve all EXCEPT: A. a blood clot in the arterial system B. an obstruction of blood flow due to a stable atherosclerotic placque C. a foreign mass that is transported in the blood stream D. a moving blood clot 60. The risk of developing a venous thrombosis is high in the presence of 3 groups of factors. Which group of factors does not increase risk? A. Vascular trauma B. Stasis of venous blood flow C. Hypercoagulability of the blood D. Hypertensive conditions 61. The arterial blood pressure is directly determined by the: A. cardiac output B. venous blood volume C. peripheral vascular resistance D. A and C E. A, B, and C 62. Long-term regulation of blood pressure depends on function of the: A. arterial baroreceptors B. chemoreceptors C. autonomic nervous system D. kidneys in terms of regulating body levels of salt and water 63. Essential hypertension represents an elevation in blood pressure that occurs: A. without an identified cause B. secondary to another disease condition C. as a result of normal exercise D. nocturnally 64. Limiting salt intake is recommended as an initial nonpharmacological treatment for hypertension because it: A. helps a person lose weight B. reduces water retention and decreases vascular volume C. reduces sympathetic nervous system activity D. increases cardiac output and reduces renal blood flow 65. The ejection fraction (normally about 65%) is often used as a measure of heart function. It is determined by: A. dividing the amount of blood ejected from the heart during systole by the end-diastolic volume and multiplying by 100 to obtain a percentage B. measuring the amount of blood that is ejected from the heart over several cardiac cycles and arriving at an average of the measurements C. measuring the systolic and end-diastolic volume and obtaining the difference between the two |