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Project Risk Management Practice Exam
1. The two major components of a risk are:
a. Time and cost
b. Uncertainty and damage
c. Quality and time
d. Cost and decision-making circumstances
2. Risk management is normally performed by:
a. Developing contingency plans
b. Asking the customer for help
c. Asking the sponsor for help
d. Developing work-around situations
3. Future outcomes that provide favorable opportunities are called:
a. Favorable risks
b. Opportunities
c. Contingencies
d. Surprises
4. The cause of a risk event is usually referred to as::
a. An opportunity
b. A hazard
c. An outcome
d. An unwanted surprise
5. If there is a 40 percent chance of making $100,000 and a 60 percent chance of losing $150,000, then the expected monetary outcome is::
a. $ 50,000
b. - $50,000
c. $ 90,000
d. - $90,000
6. Assumption, mitigation, and transfer are examples of risk:
a. Contingencies
b. Uncertainties
c. Expectations
d. Responses
7. In which life-cycle phase would project uncertainty be the greatest?:
a. Initiation
b. Planning
c. Execution
d. Closure
8. In which life-cycle phase would the financial risks of a project be the greatest?
a. Initiation
b. Planning
c. Execution
d. Closure
9. Identifying a risk as high, moderate, or low would be an example of which risk assessment?
a. Go-for-broke
b. Adverse
c. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
10. Monte Carlo simulation is an example of which risk assessment?
a. Go-for-broke
b. Adverse
c. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
11. Which of the following is not a valid reason for managing a risk?
a. Minimizing the risk’s likelihood
b. Minimizing the risk’s unfavorable consequences
c. Maximizing the probability of the risk’s favorable consequences
d. Providing a late-as-possible warning system
12. Which of the following is generally not part of risk management?:
a. Defining the roles and responsibilities of the team members
b. Establishing a risk reporting format
c. Understanding the contractual terms and conditions
d. Risk scoring and interpretation
13. A technique for risk evaluation that uses a questionnaire, a series of rounds, and reports submitted in confidence and then circulated with the source unidentified is called::
a. The Delphi technique
b. The work group
c. Unsolicited team responses
d. A risk management team
14. Risk symptoms or early warning signs are called:
a. Vectors
b. Triggers
c. Accepts the consequences of the risk event should it occur
d. Includes leaving the risk with the customer when the customer is in the best position to mitigate the risk
15. Which of the following is not a risk quantification tool or technique?:
a. Interviewing
b.. Decision tree analysis
c. Objective setting
d. Simulation
16. A technique that depicts interactions among decisions and associated events is called:
a. Decision tree analysis
b. Earned value measurement system
c. Network scheduling system
d. Payoff matrix system
17. Varying one risk driver at a time, either in small increments or from optimistic to pessimistic estimates while keeping all other drivers fixed, is called:
a. Decision tree analysis
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Network analysis
d. Earned value analysis
18. A risk response strategy that generally reduces the probability or impact of the event without altering the project’s objectives is called:
a. Avoidance
b. Acceptance
c. Mitigation
d. Transfer
19. Earned value measurement is an example of::
a. Risk communication planning
b. Risk assessment
c. Risk response
d. Risk monitoring and control
20.The difference between being proactive and reactive is the development of a:
a. Payoff table
b. Range of probabilities
c. Range of payoffs
d. Contingency plan
Answers to Project Risk Management Exam
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. b
5. b
6. d
7. a
8. d
9. c
10. d
11. d
12. c
13. d
14. b
15. c
16. a
17. b
18. c
19. d
20. d
Project Risk Management Practice Exam
1. The target against which the project team will measure the effectiveness of its execution of the risk response plan is based on the _____
a. Acceptable threshold for risk
b. Risk score
c. Probability/ impact risk ranking
d. Overall risk ranking for the project
2. A project has a tight schedule. What is the most useful way for early start of the project?
a. Contract Firm Fixed contract
b. Send the Letter Of Intent for expediting the start
c. Contingency planning against the late completion
d. Establish a time-constrained schedule
3. In consideration of Risks, project team prepared an alternative schedule. What is this?
a. Critical Path Analysis
b. Monte Carlo Simulation
c. Contingency Planning
d. Schedule Variance
4. Pure Risks differ from Business Risks because pure risks:
a. include chances of both profit or loss associated with the business.
b. include chances of loss and no chances for profit associated with the business.
c. must incur personal loss with business liability.
d. must incur business liability associated with loss of pure profit.
5. A calculation of the Standard deviation for critical path duration is:
a. determined by (0 + (4*ML) + P) divided by six.
b. an indicator of project end date confidence.
c. a function of float, leveling and project costs.
d. all of the above
6. Which of the following is not an objective of a risk audit?
a. Confirming that risk management has been practiced throughout the project life cycle.
b. Confirming that the project is well managed and that the risks are being controlled.
c. Helping to identify the deterioration of the project’s value potential in its early stages.
d. Ensuring that each risk identified and deemed critical has a computed expected value.
7. Project Risk:
a. should not be calculated for small projects.
b. is the probability of each risk event minus the sum of the consequences of potential risk events.
c. is the cumulative effect of uncertain occurrences which will adversely affect project objectives.
d. cannot be quantified for first time projects.
8. What action is necessary to determine the influence due to change?
a. Re-evaluation of WBS
b. Re-evaluation of Communication plan
c. Earned Value Review
d. Performance Measurement
9. Sensitivity Analysis can be used in risk analysis to:
a. Substitute for uncertainty analysis in risk quantification.
b. Estimate the level of risk aversion adopted by management.
c. Estimate the effect of change of one project variable on the overall project.
d. a AND b
10. Your project for the U.S. DOE is using earned value analysis as a performance reporting technique. Your project is 20% complete. Results from a recent earned value analysis indicate that the CPI is 0.67 and SPI is 0.87. In this situation, you should ____
a. Perform additional resource planning, add resources, and use overtime as needed to accomplish the same amount of budgeted work.
b. Re-baseline the schedule, then use Monte Carlo analysis.
c. Conduct a risk response audit to help control risk.
d. Update the risk identification and qualitative and quantitative risk analysis.
11. The probability of Project B being the successful project is:
start --.5-->Project A -----.6-->Success
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| |--.4-->Failure
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|--.5-->Project B-----.7-->Success
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|--.3- ->Failure
a. .30 b. .20
c. .35 d. .15
12. The ability to reduce risk impact:
a. inversely related to the Project Life Cycle phase.
b. directly related to the Project Life Cycle phase.
c. is inversely related to the amount at stake.
d. is inversely related to the risk probability.
13. Engineering department insisted on the introduction of new CAD system in a project meeting. If problem occurs due to the new CAD system, overtime is expected. In the Matrix organization, PM must perform
a. Risk assessment and develop response.
b. Recording in the minute of meeting for better communication.
c. Written request to Engineering department to keep the schedule.
d. Suggestion that the CAD system be introduced after the project completion.
14. Each of the following statements about risk avoidance is true except that it ______
a. Focuses on eliminating the elements that are creating the risk.
b. Includes making the decision not to bid on a project in which the risk exposure is believed to be too high.
c. Accepts the consequences of the risk event should it occur.
d. Includes leaving the risk with the customer when the customer is in the best position to mitigate the risk.
15. The ultimate responsibility for identifying and managing project risks rests with the:
a. Project sponsor
b. Project manager
c. Project team
d. Project manager and project sponsor
16. The most important aspects of a risk from a management point of view are its:
a. Causes
b. Effects
c. Exposure value
d. Probability of occurrence
17. Which of the following statements best characterizes a cost or duration estimation developed with a limited amount of information?
a. It should be part of the planning for the needed management reserve.
b. It is an input to risk identification.
c. It is an output to risk identification.
d. It must be factored into the list of prioritized project risks.
18. Of the four types of risk inherent in project management, which one will have the most lasting effect from the customer's perspective if not managed well?
a. Scope risk
b. Schedule risk
c. Cost risk
d. Quality risk
19. The WBS is a key input to the risk identification process because it :
a. Identifies all the work must be done and, therefore, helps to identify potential sources of risk.
b. Helps to organize all the work that must be done on the project.
c. Provides a basis for cost estimating.
d. Identifies work packages, which enables specific responsibility to be assigned.
20. Which of the following is an example of corrective action in risk management?
a. Conducting a risk audit
b. Engaging in additional risk response planning
c. Performing the contingency plan
d. Conducting a risk review
21. In a proactive approach to project risk management, the amount of a contingency reserve should be based on ---
a. Percentages based on past experience
b. The sum total of the most likely probability and impact of the various risk events
c. A set amount allocated to each item proportionately
d. An allowance of 10% for each phase in the project life cycle
22. All the following are purposes of project risk management except ---
a. Identifying factors that are likely to affect the project scope, quality, time, and cost
b. Developing response strategies for all identified risks
c. Providing a baseline for project factors that cannot be controlled
d. Mitigating impacts by influencing project factors that can be controlled
23. Contingency planning involves:
a. Defining the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur
b. Establishing a management reserve to cover unplanned expenditures
c. Preparing a stand-alone document that is separate from the overall project plan
d. Determining needed adjustments to make during the implementation phase of a project
24. The highest risk impact generally occurs during which of the following project life-cycle phases?
a. Concept and planning b. Planning and implementation
c. Implementation and closeout d. Concept and closeout
25. Of the following risk quantification approaches, which one considers the attitude of the decision maker toward risk?
a. Sensitivity analysis b. Utility theory
c. Monte Carlo method d. decision theory
26. As manager of your organization’s project office, you often must decide which projects will receive additional resources. You also recommend which projects should be initiated, continued, or cancelled. One way to help you make these decisions is to ---
a. Determine an overall risk ranking for the project
b. Assess trends in quantitative risk analysis result
c. Prioritize risks and conditions
d. Assess trends in qualitative risk analysis results
27. Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk?
a. Changes in government regulations b. Natural hazards
c. Unexpected environmental side effects d. Inflation
28. If a business venture has a 60% chance to earn $2 million and a 20% chance to lose $1.5 million, what is the expected monetary value of the venture?
a. -$50,000
b. $300,000
c. $500,000
d. $900,000
29. The Delphi method is a particularly useful risk quantification technique to ---
a. Present a sequence of decision choices graphically to decision makers
b. Determine probability assessments relating to future events
c. Help take into account the attitude toward risk of the decision maker
d. Formalize management's attitude toward risk
30. If a project manager has a very low tolerance for risk, he is said to be:
a. Risk averse b. Risk tolerant
c. Opportunistic d. Methodical
Risk Management
1. a 21. b
2. a 22. b
3. c 23. a
4. b 24. c
5. b 25. b
6. d 26. a
7. c 27. d
8. d 28. d
9. c 29. b
10. d 30. a
11. c
12. a
13. a
14. c
15. a
16. a
17. b
18. d
19. a
20. c
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