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Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank


AVIATION MECHANIC AIRFRAME

Version: 001
6/8/2000

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of computer testing supplement publications. These publications, available through regional Government bookstores, the Superintendent of Documents, and aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download file SUPLMNT.BKS for a complete list of the associated supplement books.

Please Note:
Subject matter codes appear above each item.



A.8.0.0.1.A.1 A01
Laminated wood spars may be substituted for solid rectangular wood spars
A. only in certain instances where the primary load is shared by one or more other original structural member.
B. only upon specific approval by the manufacturer or the FAA.
C. if the same quality wood is used in both.

A.8.0.0.2.A.1 A01
The strength of a well designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the
A. bearing surface of the wood fibers.
B. glue.
C. reinforcement plates.

A.8.0.0.3.A.1 A01
Where is information found concerning acceptable species substitutions for wood materials used in aircraft repair?
A. Technical Standard Orders.
B. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.
C. AC 43.13-1B.

A.8.0.0.4.A.1 A01
In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes,
A. it is permissible to ream the hole, plug with hardwood, and redrill.
B. a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely.
C. the spar may be reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates.

A.8.0.0.5.A.1 A02
A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates
A. compression failure.
B. shear failure.
C. decay.

A.8.0.0.6.A.1 A02
Which statement about wood decay is correct?
A. Decay that occurs before the wood is seasoned does not affect the strength of the finished piece.
B. A limited amount of certain kinds of decay is acceptable in aircraft woods since decay affects the binding between the fibers and not the fibers themselves.
C. Decay is not acceptable in any form or amount.

A.8.0.0.7.A.1 A02
Which of the following conditions will determine acceptance of wood with mineral streaks?
A. Local irregularities do not exceed limitations specified for spiral and diagonal grain.
B. Careful inspection fails to reveal any decay.
C. They produce only a small effect on grain direction.

A.8.0.0.8.A.1 A02
The I beam wooden spar is routed to
A. reduce weight.
B. increase strength.
C. obtain uniform strength.

A.8.0.0.9.A.1 A02
Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft structure provided
A. no pitch pockets are within 12 inches.
B. they produce a small effect on grain direction.
C. they have no mineral streaks.

A.8.0.1.0.A.1 A02
The cantilever wing uses
A. the skin to carry most of the load to the wing butt.
B. no external bracing.
C. external struts or wire bracing.

A.8.0.1.1.A.1 A03
Laminated wood is sometimes used in the construction of highly stressed aircraft components. This wood can be identified by its
A. similarity to standard plywood construction.
B. parallel grain construction.
C. perpendicular grain construction.

A.8.0.1.2.A.1 A03
When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in cross sectional areas which will develop dangerous stress concentration should be avoided by using
A. circular or elliptical patches.
B. square patches.
C. doublers with any desired shaped patches.

A.8.0.1.3.A.1 A03
Glue deterioration in wood aircraft structure is indicated
A. when a joint has separated and the glue surface shows only the imprint of the wood with no wood fibers clinging to the glue.
B. by any joint separation.
C. when a joint has separated and the glue surface shows pieces of wood and/or wood fibers clinging to the glue.

A.8.0.1.4.A.1 A03
Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are characterized by buckling of the fibers that appear as streaks on the surface
A. at right angles to the growth rings.
B. at right angles to the grain.
C. parallel to the grain.

B.8.0.1.5.A.1 B01
When and how is finishing tape applied on a fabric covered aircraft?
A. Doped on immediately prior to the finish coat.
B. Doped on after the first or second coat of dope.
C. Sewed or laced on before dope is applied.

B.8.0.1.6.A.1 B01
The determining factor(s) for the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any type of aircraft is the
A. speed of the aircraft.
B. maximum wing loading.
C. speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading.

B.8.0.1.7.A.1 B01
How many fabric thicknesses will be found in a French fell seam?
A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Five.

B.8.0.1.8.B.1 B01
Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose?
A. To provide additional anti-tear resistance under reinforcement tape.
B. To help prevent "ripple formation" in covering fabric.
C. To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures.

B.8.0.1.9.A.1 B01
Moisture, mildew, chemicals, and acids have no effect on
A. glass fabric.
B. linen fabric.
C. dacron fabric.

B.8.0.2.0.A.1 B02
The best method of repair for a fabric covered surface which has an L shaped tear, each leg of which is approximately 14 inches long, is to
A. sew with a baseball stitch from the center of the tear out toward the extremity of each leg and then dope on a patch.
B. re-cover the entire bay in which the tear is located.
C. sew from the end of each leg to the center of the tear with a baseball stitch and then dope on a patch.

B.8.0.2.1.A.1 B02
The strength classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on
A. bearing strength.
B. tensile strength.
C. shear strength.

B.8.0.2.2.A.1 B02
Fabric rejuvenator
A. restores fabric strength and tautness to at least the minimum acceptable level.
B. restores the condition of dope coatings.
C. penetrates the fabric and restores fungicidal resistance.

B.8.0.2.3.A.1 B02
(1) Machine sewn seams in aircraft covering fabrics may be of the folded fell or French fell types.
(2) A plain lapped seam is never permissible.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 2 is true.
B. only No. 1 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

B.8.0.2.4.A.1 B02
When testing the strength of Grade A cotton fabric covering an aircraft that requires only intermediate grade, the minimum acceptable strength the fabric must have is
A. 70 percent of its original strength.
B. 70 percent of the original strength for intermediate fabric.
C. 56 pounds per inch warp and fill.

B.8.0.2.5.A.1 B02
When dope-proofing the parts of the aircraft structure that come in contact with doped fabric, which of the following provide an acceptable protective coating?
1. Aluminum foil.
2. Resin impregnated cloth tape.
3. Any one-part type metal primer.
4. Cellulose tape.
A. 3 and 4.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 1 and 4.

C.8.0.2.6.A.1 C01
If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C?
Note:
2/3 x height = character width.
1/6 x height = width for 1.
1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing.
1/6 x height = stroke or line width.
A. 48 inches.
B. 52 inches.
C. 57 inches.

C.8.0.2.7.A.1 C01
If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as for trim spraying, and is left on for several days and/or exposed to heat, it is likely that the tape will
A. cure to the finish and be very difficult to remove.
B. not seal out the finishing material if the delay or heating occurs before spraying.
C. be weakened in its ability to adhere to the surface.

C.8.0.2.8.A.1 C02
What is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and to prevent blush?
A. Reducer.
B. Retarder.
C. Rejuvenator.

C.8.0.2.9.A.1 C02
Which type of coating typically includes phosphoric acid as one of its components at the time of application?
A. Wash primer.
B. Epoxy primer.
C. Zinc chromate primer.

C.8.0.3.0.A.1 C02
Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant?
A. Synthetic enamel.
B. Polyurethane.
C. Acrylic lacquer.

C.8.0.3.1.A.1 C02
Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to
A. exclude sunlight from the fabric.
B. aid in sealing out moisture from the fabric.
C. provide a silver color.

C.8.0.3.2.A.1 C02
A correct use for acetone is to
A. thin zinc chromate primer.
B. thin dope.
C. remove grease from fabric.

C.8.0.3.3.A.1 C03
Which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the finishing process?
A. Overheating of the fabric/finish, especially with the use of power tools.
B. Static electricity buildup.
C. Embedding of particles in the finish.

C.8.0.3.4.A.1 C03
What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
A. A dull finish due to the topcoat ``sinking in'' to primer that is still too soft.
B. Corrosion.
C. A glossy, blush-free finish.

C.8.0.3.5.A.1 C03
Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the
A. final, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to reduce blushing.
B. first coat to prevent fabric rotting and are applied thin enough to saturate the fabric.
C. first, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to prevent fungus damage.

C.8.0.3.6.A.1 C03
Before spraying any finishing materials on unpainted clean aluminum,
A. wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene.
B. avoid touching the surface with bare hands.
C. remove any conversion coating film.

C.8.0.3.7.A.1 C03
What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
A. A glossy, blush-free finish.
B. A dull finish due to the topcoat ``sinking in'' to primer that is still too soft.
C. Corrosion.

C.8.0.3.8.A.1 C04
What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?
A. Low atmospheric humidity.
B. Too much material applied in one coat.
C. Material is being applied too fast.

C.8.0.3.9.A.1 C04
Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperature?
A. Orange peel.
B. Pinholes.
C. Blushing.

C.8.0.4.0.A.1 C04
Which statement is true regarding paint system compatibility?
A. Acrylic nitrocellulose lacquers may be used over old nitrocellulose finishes.
B. Old type zinc chromate primer may not be used directly for touchup of bare metal surfaces.
C. Old wash primer coats may be overcoated directly with epoxy finishes.

D.8.0.4.1.A.1 D01
A well designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to
A. compressive loads.
B. tension loads.
C. shear loads.

D.8.0.4.2.A.1 D01
A main difference between Lockbolt/ Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the
A. method of installation.
B. number of locking collar grooves.
C. shape of the head.

D.8.0.4.3.A.1 D01
Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
A. to a temperature of 910 to 930 캟 and quenched in cold water.
B. by the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being driven.
C. by the manufacturer but require reheat treatment before being driven.

D.8.0.4.4.A.1 D01
The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is
A. three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.
B. two times the rivet length.
C. three times the thickness of the materials to be joined.

D.8.0.4.5.B.1 D01
The shop head of a rivet should be
A. one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
B. one and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet.
C. one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank.

D.8.0.4.6.A.1 D01
One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that
A. the squeezed on collar installation provides a more secure, tighter fit.
B. they can be removed and reused again.
C. they can be installed with ordinary hand tools.

D.8.0.4.7.A.1 D01
The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the
A. manufacturer and type of material.
B. body type, head diameter, and type of material.
C. body diameter, type of head, and length of the fastener.

D.8.0.4.8.A.1 D01
The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is measured in
A. sixteenths of an inch.
B. tenths of an inch.
C. hundredths of an inch.

D.8.0.4.9.A.1 D01
The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is measured in
A. sixteenths of an inch.
B. hundredths of an inch.
C. tenths of an inch.

D.8.0.5.0.A.1 D01
Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to
A. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where shear strength is desired.
B. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where bearing strength is desired.
C. attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal.

D.8.0.5.1.A.1 D01
Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets
A. may be installed with ordinary hand tools.
B. utilize a pulling tool for installation.
C. utilize a rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar for installation.

D.8.0.5.2.A.1 D01
Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the
A. possibility of causing delamination.
B. difficulty in forming a proper shop head.
C. increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener.

D.8.0.5.3.A.1 D01
Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures
A. must be constructed of high strength aluminum-lithium alloy.
B. must be constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel.
C. may be constructed of any of the metals commonly used in aircraft fasteners.

D.8.0.5.4.A.1 D02
Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of construction
A. may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with thermoplastic resin.
B. has a high strength to weight ratio.
C. is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant.

D.8.0.5.5.A.1 D02
(1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on composite structures, a change in sound may be due to damage or to transition to a different internal structure.
(2) The extent of separation damage in composite structures is most accurately measured by a ring (coin tap) test.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

D.8.0.5.6.A.1 D02
Which of these methods may be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water?
1. Acoustic emission monitoring.
2. X-ray.
3. Backlighting.
A. 1 and 2.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1 and 3.

D.8.0.5.7.A.1 D02
When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that
A. the grain is perpendicular to the skin.
B. the grain is parallel to the skin.
C. it is about 1/8-inch undersize to allow sufficient bonding material to be applied.

D.8.0.5.8.A.1 D02
When repairing puncture type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the doubler should be tapered to
A. whatever is desired for a neat, clean appearance.
B. 100 times the thickness of the metal.
C. two times the thickness of the metal.

D.8.0.5.9.A.1 D02
One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to
A. perform a chemical composition analysis.
B. have mixed enough for a test sample.
C. test the viscosity of the resin immediately after mixing.

D.8.0.6.0.A.1 D02
Composite inspections conducted by means of acoustic emission monitoring
A. pick up the ``noise'' of corrosion or other deterioration occurring.
B. create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected.
C. analyze ultrasonic signals transmitted into the parts being inspected.

D.8.0.6.1.A.1 D02
What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb structure?
A. Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and seal from the atmosphere.
B. Paint the outside area with several coats of exterior paint.
C. None. Honeycomb is usually made from a man made or fibrous material which is not susceptible to corrosion.

D.8.0.6.2.A.1 D02
One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to damage is to
A. strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure.
B. use an eddy current probe on both sides of the damaged area.
C. use dye penetrant inspection procedures, exposing the entire damaged area to the penetrant solution.

D.8.0.6.3.A.1 D02
When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate
A. separation of the laminates.
B. an area of too much matrix between fiber layers.
C. less than full strength curing of the matrix.

D.8.0.6.4.B.1 D02
How many of the following are benefits of using microballoons when making repairs to laminated honeycomb panels?
1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and corners.
2. Improved strength to weight ratio.
3. Less density.
4. Lower stress concentrations.
A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Two.

D.8.0.6.5.A.1 D03
The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the
A. pot life.
B. service life.
C. shelf life.

D.8.0.6.6.A.1 D03
A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a
A. thermoset.
B. thermoplastic.
C. thermocure.

D.8.0.6.7.A.1 D03
The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass used in aircraft structures is
A. S.
B. G.
C. E.

D.8.0.6.8.A.1 D03
Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?
A. Zinc chloride will have no effect.
B. Has a yellowish tint when viewed from the edge.
C. Acetone will soften plastic, but will not change its color.

D.8.0.6.9.A.1 D03
Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be repaired by applying
A. a piece of resin impregnated glass fabric facing.
B. one or more coats of suitable resin (room temperature catalyzed) to the surface.
C. a sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface and one or more coats of resin cured with infrared heat lamps.

D.8.0.7.0.A.1 D03
The classification for fiberglass reinforcement material that has high resistivity and is the most common is
A. E.
B. G.
C. S.

D.8.0.7.1.A.1 D03
A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than
A. 2 inches in diameter.
B. 1 inch in diameter.
C. 4 inches in diameter.

D.8.0.7.2.A.1 D03
Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?
A. Fill.
B. Bias.
C. Warp.

D.8.0.7.3.A.1 D03
What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric?
A. Fill clock (or compass).
B. Bias clock (or compass).
C. Warp clock (or compass).

D.8.0.7.4.A.1 D03
The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite buildup depends primarily on
A. the orientation of the plies to the load direction.
B. the ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the matrix.
C. a 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio.

D.8.0.7.5.A.1 D03
Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best for strength?
A. 60:40.
B. 40:60.
C. 50:50.

D.8.0.7.6.A.1 D03
What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?
A. Release.
B. Bleeder.
C. Breather.

D.8.0.7.7.A.1 D03
Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by
1. applying external heat.
2. room temperature exposure.
3. adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin.
4. applying pressure.
A. 1 and 4.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1, 3, and 4.

D.8.0.7.8.A.1 D03
When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One method of reducing the amount of warpage is to
A. use less catalyst than normal so the repair will be more flexible.
B. add an extra amount of catalyst to the resin.
C. use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair.

D.8.0.7.9.A.1 D03
When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The final cleaning should be made using
A. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone).
B. a thixotropic agent.
C. soap, water, and a scrub brush.

D.8.0.8.0.A.1 D03
When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates?
A. Water only.
B. Water displacing oil.
C. Water soluble oil.

D.8.0.8.1.A.1 D03
Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by
A. sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic smoothness is obtained.
B. trimming the rough edges and sealing with paint.
C. filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean, short glass fibers.

D.8.0.8.2.A.1 D03
Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure
A. must be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous stress concentrations.
B. may be repaired.
C. may be filled with putty which is compatible with resin.

D.8.0.8.3.A.1 D03
Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core
A. requires the replacement of the damaged core and facing.
B. can be repaired by using a typical metal facing patch.
C. cannot be repaired.

D.8.0.8.4.A.1 D03
Repairing advanced composites using materials and techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is likely to result in
A. an unairworthy repair.
B. improved wear resistance to the structure.
C. restored strength and flexibility.

D.8.0.8.5.A.1 D03
The preferred way to make permanent repairs on composites is by
A. bonding on metal or cured composite patches.
B. riveting on metal or cured composite patches.
C. laminating on new repair plies.

D.8.0.8.6.A.1 D03
Which of the following, when added to wet resins, provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener holes in composite panels?
1. Microballoons.
2. Flox.
3. Chopped fibers.
A. 1 and 3.
B. 1, 2, and 3.
C. 2 and 3.

D.8.0.8.7.A.1 D03
The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original is the
A. cell edge.
B. cell side.
C. ribbon direction.

D.8.0.8.8.A.1 D03
Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites?
1. High tensile strength.
2. Flexibility.
3. Stiffness.
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum.
5. Ability to conduct electricity.
A. 1, 3, and 5.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 2, 3 and 4.

D.8.0.8.9.A.1 D03
Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite fiber composites?
1. Flexibility.
2. Stiffness.
3. High compressive strength.
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum.
5. Ability to conduct electricity.
A. 1, 3, and 5.
B. 2, 3, and 4.
C. 1 and 3.

D.8.0.9.0.A.1 D04
If an aircraft's transparent plastic enclosures exhibit fine cracks which may extend in a network over or under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is said to be
A. brinelling.
B. hazing.
C. crazing.

D.8.0.9.1.A.1 D04
When installing transparent plastic enclosures which are retained by bolts extending through the plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be
A. tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full turn.
B. tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn.
C. tightened to a firm fit.

D.8.0.9.2.A.1 D04
If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the belt must conform to the strength requirements in which document?
A. TSO C22.
B. FAR Part 39.
C. STC 1282.

D.8.0.9.3.A.1 D04
Which is considered good practice concerning the installation of acrylic plastics?
A. When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other satisfactory means to prevent excessive tightening of the frame to the plastic should be provided.
B. When rivets or nuts and bolts are used, slotted holes are not recommended.
C. When nuts and bolts are used, the plastic should be installed hot and tightened to a firm fit before the plastic cools.

D.8.0.9.4.A.1 D04
The coefficient of expansion of most plastic enclosure materials is
A. greater than steel but less than aluminum.
B. greater than both steel and aluminum.
C. less than either steel or aluminum.

D.8.0.9.5.A.1 D04
If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces should be
A. covered with a thin coat of wax.
B. buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth.
C. polished with rubbing compound applied with a damp cloth.

D.8.0.9.6.A.1 D04
Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must
A. meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43.
B. be at least flame resistant.
C. be fireproof.

D.8.0.9.7.A.1 D04
What is the most common method of cementing transparent plastics?
A. Bevel method.
B. Soak method.
C. Heat method.

D.8.0.9.8.A.1 D04
When holes are drilled completely through Plexiglas, a
A. wood drill should be used.
B. standard twist drill should be used.
C. specially modified twist drill should be used.

D.8.0.9.9.A.1 D05
What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used in the construction and repair of aircraft structures?
A. To join and reinforce intersecting structural members.
B. To provide access for inspection of structural attachments.
C. To hold structural members in position temporarily until the permanent attachment has been completed.

D.8.1.0.0.A.1 D05
Select the alternative which best describes the function of the flute section of a twist drill.
A. Forms the cutting edges of the drill point.
B. Forms the area where the drill bit attaches to the drill motor.
C. Prevents overheating of the drill point.

D.8.1.0.1.A.1 D05
How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach a 10" x 5" plate, using a single row of rivets, minimum edge distance, and 4D spacing?
A. 54.
B. 56.
C. 52.

D.8.1.0.2.A.1 D05
Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a semi monocoque fuselage are called
A. spars and ribs.
B. longerons and stringers.
C. spars and stringers.

D.8.1.0.3.A.1 D05
Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by
A. buffing.
B. burnishing.
C. stop drilling.

D.8.1.0.4.A.1 D05
What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?
A. 118?
B. 90?
C. 65?

D.8.1.0.5.A.1 D05
When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a
A. higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill.
B. lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill.
C. lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill.

D.8.1.0.6.A.1 D05
A single lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a section of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of 1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable overlap will be
A. 1 inch.
B. 3/4 inch.
C. 1/2 inch.

D.8.1.0.7.A.1 D05
Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have been critically loaded?
A. If rivets show no visible distortion, further investigation is unnecessary.
B. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the same direction.
C. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks will be joggled.

D.8.1.0.8.A.1 D05
What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?
A. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank.
B. Two times the diameter of the rivet head.
C. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank.

D.8.1.0.9.A.1 D05
When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of
A. 140?and turn at a low speed.
B. 118?and turn at a high speed.
C. 90?and turn at a low speed.

D.8.1.1.0.A.1 D05
What is the minimum spacing for a single row of aircraft rivets?
A. Three times the length of the rivet shank.
B. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank.
C. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank.

D.8.1.1.1.A.1 D05
(Refer to figure 1.) Which of the rivets shown will accurately fit the conical depression made by a 100?countersink?
A. 3.
B. 2.
C. 1.

D.8.1.1.2.A.1 D05
Which is correct concerning the use of a file?
A. A smoother finish can be obtained by using a double cut file than by using a single cut file.
B. Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filing very soft metals such as lead or aluminum.
C. The terms ``double cut'' and ``second cut'' have the same meaning in reference to files.

D.8.1.1.3.A.1 D05
What is one of the determining factors which permits machine countersinking when flush riveting?
A. Thickness of the material and rivet diameter are the same.
B. Thickness of the material is greater than the thickness of the rivet head.
C. Thickness of the material is less than the thickness of the rivet head.

D.8.1.1.4.A.1 D05
When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin, the major consideration in the design of the patch should be
A. that the bond between the patch and the skin is sufficient to prevent dissimilar metal corrosion.
B. the shear strength of the riveted joint.
C. to use rivet spacing similar to a seam in the skin.

D.8.1.1.5.A.1 D05
Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
A. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.
B. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure when finishing the cut.
C. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to remove from the hole.

D.8.1.1.6.A.1 D05
Repairs or splices involving stringers on the lower surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually
A. permitted only if the damage does not exceed 6 inches in any direction.
B. not permitted.
C. permitted but are normally more critical in reference to strength in tension than similar repairs to the upper surface.

D.8.1.1.7.A.1 D05
When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you should
A. straighten cold and anneal to remove stress.
B. straighten cold and reinforce.
C. apply heat to the inside of the bend.

D.8.1.1.8.A.1 D05
Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they
A. are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys.
B. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys.
C. can be heat treated much easier than the other forms of aluminum.

D.8.1.1.9.A.1 D05
Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?
A. No external bracing is needed.
B. It requires only one lift strut on each side.
C. It has nonadjustable lift struts.

D.8.1.2.0.A.1 D05
Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet metal, are normally
A. repairable, using approved methods.
B. not repairable, but must be replaced when damaged or deteriorated.
C. repairable, except when subjected to compressive loads.

D.8.1.2.1.A.1 D05
A factor which determines the minimum space between rivets is the
A. diameter of the rivets being used.
B. length of the rivets being used.
C. thickness of the material being riveted.

D.8.1.2.2.A.1 D05
What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal?
A. 118?
B. 90?
C. 100?

D.8.1.2.3.A.1 D05
When fabricating parts from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet stock,
A. bends should be made with a small radius to develop maximum strength.
B. all bends must be 90?to the grain.
C. all scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be held to a minimum.

D.8.1.2.4.A.1 D05
The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the strength of
A. bulkheads and longerons.
B. longerons and formers.
C. skin or covering.

D.8.1.2.5.A.1 D05
Which part(s) of a semi monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from bending the fuselage?
A. Bulkheads and skin.
B. Longerons and stringers.
C. The fuselage covering.

D.8.1.2.6.A.1 D05
Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance between the
A. heads of rivets in the same row.
B. centers of rivets in adjacent rows.
C. centers of adjacent rivets in the same row.

D.8.1.2.7.A.1 D05
Rivet pitch is the distance between the
A. centers of adjacent rivets in the same row.
B. heads of rivets in the same row.
C. centers of rivets in adjacent rows.

D.8.1.2.8.A.1 D05
(Refer to figure 2.) Select the preferred drawing for proper countersinking.
A. 2.
B. 1.
C. All are acceptable.

D.8.1.2.9.A.1 D05
What is indicated by a black ``smoky'' residue streaming back from some of the rivets on an aircraft?
A. Fretting corrosion is occurring between the rivets and the skin.
B. Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside the structure.
C. The rivets were excessively work hardened during installation.

D.8.1.3.0.A.1 D06
The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the
A. degree of dimensional and process control observed during manufacture.
B. specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets.
C. head shape, shank size, material used, and specifications adhered to during manufacture.

D.8.1.3.1.A.1 D06
When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear strength is obtained
A. by the cold working of the rivet metal in forming a shop head.
B. only after a period of age hardening.
C. by heat treating just prior to being driven.

D.8.1.3.2.A.1 D06
Which of the following need not be considered when determining minimum rivet spacing?
A. Rivet length.
B. Type of material being riveted.
C. Rivet diameter.

D.8.1.3.3.A.1 D06
What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
A. To retard age hardening.
B. To relieve internal stresses.
C. To accelerate age hardening.

D.8.1.3.4.A.1 D06
Under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because of their
A. low strength characteristics.
B. tendency toward embrittlement when subjected to vibration.
C. high alloy content.

D.8.1.3.5.A.1 D06
A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should
A. be nearly flat on the end, with a slight radius on the edge to prevent damage to the sheet being riveted.
B. have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head.
C. have the same radius as the rivet head.

D.8.1.3.6.A.1 D06
Heat treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment or removal from refrigeration
A. may be returned to refrigeration and used later without reheat treatment.
B. must be reheat treated before use.
C. must be discarded.

D.8.1.3.7.A.1 D06
The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are
A. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long.
B. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long.
C. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long.

D.8.1.3.8.A.1 D06
The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 is indicated by the number
A. 20.
B. 24.
C. 2.

D.8.1.3.9.A.1 D06
Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in its manufacture?
A. 20.
B. 17.
C. 2.

D.8.1.4.0.A.1 D06
A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be
A. 5/16 inch.
B. 1/4 inch.
C. 1/8 inch.

D.8.1.4.1.A.1 D06
Most rivets used in aircraft construction have
A. a raised dot.
B. smooth heads without markings.
C. dimples.

D.8.1.4.2.A.1 D06
MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has
A. an overall length of 5/16 inch.
B. a shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head).
C. a shank length of 5/32 inch (excluding head).

D.8.1.4.3.A.1 D06
Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?
A. 2117-T3.
B. 2017-T3.
C. 2024-T4.

D.8.1.4.4.A.1 D06
(Refer to figure 3.) Which is the grip length of the flush rivet?
A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 1.

D.8.1.4.5.A.1 D06
Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum?
A. MS20455DD-5-3.
B. MS20425D-4-3.
C. MS20470AD-4-4.

D.8.1.4.6.A.1 D06
A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be
A. 5/16 inch.
B. 3/16 inch.
C. 5/32 inch.

D.8.1.4.7.A.1 D06
Mild steel rivets are used for riveting
A. nickel steel parts.
B. magnesium parts.
C. steel parts.

D.8.1.4.8.A.1 D06
A DD rivet is heat treated before use to
A. soften to facilitate riveting.
B. harden and increase strength.
C. relieve internal stresses.

D.8.1.4.9.A.1 D06
When riveting dissimilar metals together, what precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic action?
A. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by redesigning the unit according to the recommendations outlined in AC 43.13-1A.
B. Treat the surfaces to be riveted together with a process called anodic treatment.
C. Place a protective separator between areas of potential electrical difference.

D.8.1.5.0.A.1 D06
The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of .032-inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to
A. one and one half times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch.
B. three times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch.
C. two times the rivet diameter plus .064 inch.

D.8.1.5.1.A.1 D06
What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?
A. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch.
B. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove the rivet with a punch.
C. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punch.

D.8.1.5.2.A.1 D06
Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial
A. bearing failure.
B. torsion failure.
C. shear failure.

D.8.1.5.3.A.1 D06
What type loads cause the most rivet failures?
A. Shear.
B. Head.
C. Bearing.

D.8.1.5.4.A.1 D06
Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?
A. 5056 aluminum.
B. Monel.
C. Mild steel.

D.8.1.5.5.A.1 D06
Which rivet is used for riveting nickel steel alloys?
A. Mild steel.
B. Monel.
C. 2024 aluminum.

D.8.1.5.6.A.1 D06
The length of rivet to be chosen when making a structural repair that involves the joining of 0.032-inch and 0.064-inch aluminum sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is
A. 1/4 inch.
B. 7/16 inch.
C. 5/16 inch.

D.8.1.5.7.A.1 D07
(Refer to figure 4.) The length of flat A is
A. 3.750 inches.
B. 3.875 inches.
C. 3.937 inches.

D.8.1.5.8.A.1 D07
(Refer to figure 4.) The amount of material required to make the 90?bend is
A. 0.3717 inch.
B. 0.3925 inch.
C. 0.3436 inch.

D.8.1.5.9.A.1 D07
(Refer to figure 5.) What is the length of flat A?
A. 3.9 inches.
B. 3.7 inches.
C. 3.8 inches.

D.8.1.6.0.A.1 D07
(Refer to figure 5.) What is the flat layout dimension?
A. 6.6 inches.
B. 7.0 inches.
C. 6.8 inches.

D.8.1.6.1.A.1 D07
If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold and securely fastened in place. The bumping operation should be
A. started by tapping the aluminum lightly around the edges and gradually working down into the center.
B. distributed evenly over the face of the aluminum at all times rather than being started at the edges or center.
C. started by tapping the aluminum in the center until it touches the bottom of the mold and then working out in all directions.

D.8.1.6.2.A.1 D07
A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed angle of 15? must be bent through an angle of
A. 165?
B. 105?
C. 90?

D.8.1.6.3.A.1 D07
When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using a minimum radius for the type and thickness of material,
A. less pressure than usual should be applied with the movable (upper) clamping bar.
B. the layout should be made so that the bend will be 90? to the grain of the sheet.
C. the piece should be bent slowly to eliminate cracking.

D.8.1.6.4.A.1 D07
The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal from which a simple L shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the desired bend. The bracket which will require the greatest amount of material is one which has a bend radius of
A. 1/2 inch.
B. 1/4 inch.
C. 1/8 inch.

D.8.1.6.5.A.1 D07
If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be
A. found by adding approximately one half of the stock thickness to the bend radius.
B. represented by the actual length of the required material for the bend.
C. found by subtracting the stock thickness from the bend radius.

D.8.1.6.6.A.1 D07
Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the
A. radius of the neutral axis plus one half the thickness of the metal being formed.
B. inside radius of the metal being formed.
C. inside radius plus one half the thickness of the metal being formed.

D.8.1.6.7.A.1 D07
The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening the part is called the
A. minimum radius of bend.
B. bend allowance.
C. maximum radius of bend.

D.8.1.6.8.A.1 D07
The most important factors needed to make a flat pattern layout are
A. radius, thickness, and mold line.
B. the lengths of the legs (flat sections).
C. radius, thickness, and degree of bend.

D.8.1.6.9.A.1 D07
A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is referred to as the
A. bend radius.
B. bend allowance.
C. neutral line.

D.8.1.7.0.A.1 D07
You can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum alloy by
A. testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda.
B. filing the metal.
C. testing with an acetic acid solution.

D.8.1.7.1.A.1 D07
The purpose of a joggle is to
A. decrease the weight of the part and still retain the necessary strength.
B. increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion.
C. allow clearance for a sheet or an extrusion.

D.8.1.7.2.A.1 D07
When bending metal, the material on the outside of the curve stretches while the material on the inside of the curve compresses. That part of the material which is not affected by either stress is the
A. mold line.
B. bend tangent line.
C. neutral line.

D.8.1.7.3.A.1 D07
(Refer to figure 6.) Determine the dimensions of A, B, and C in the flat layout.
Setback = .252
Bend allowance = .345
A. A = 1.252
D.8.1.7.4.A.1 D07
(Refer to figure 6.) What is dimension D?
Setback = .252
Bend allowance = .345
A. 3.841.
B. 3.492.
C. 4.182.

D.8.1.7.5.A.1 D07
The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked
A. one radius from either bend tangent line.
B. one-half radius from either bend tangent line.
C. one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake.

D.8.1.7.6.A.1 D07
(Refer to figure 7.) What is dimension F?
Setback at D = .095
Setback at E = .068
Bend allowance at D = .150
Bend allowance at E = .112
A. 4.836.
B. 5.738.
C. 5.936.

D.8.1.7.7.A.1 D07
On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend, allow for stretching by
A. adding the setback to each leg.
B. subtracting the setback from one leg.
C. subtracting the setback from both legs.

D.8.1.7.8.A.1 D07
The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are usually hardened by which method?
A. Heat treatment.
B. Aging.
C. Cold working.

E.8.1.7.9.A.1 E01
In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to
A. concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation.
B. prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle.
C. lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal.

E.8.1.8.0.A.1 E01
Which statement best describes magnesium welding?
A. Filler rod should be nickel steel.
B. Magnesium can be welded to other metals.
C. Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal.

E.8.1.8.1.A.1 E01
Which statement is true in regard to welding heat-treated magnesium?
A. Magnesium cannot be repaired by fusion welding because of the high probability of igniting the metal.
B. Flux should not be used because it is very difficult to remove and is likely to cause corrosion.
C. The welded section does not have the strength of the original metal.

E.8.1.8.2.A.1 E02
The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be
A. carburizing.
B. oxidizing.
C. neutral.

E.8.1.8.3.A.1 E02
Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?
A. To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film.
B. To prevent overheating of the base metal.
C. To increase heat conductivity.

E.8.1.8.4.A.1 E03
Engine mount members should preferably be repaired by using a
A. smaller diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds.
B. larger diameter tube with fishmouth and no rosette welds.
C. larger diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds.

E.8.1.8.5.A.1 E03
What method of repair is recommended for a steel tube longeron dented at a cluster?
A. Welded patch plate.
B. Welded split sleeve.
C. Welded outer sleeve.

E.8.1.8.6.A.1 E04
Welding over brazed or soldered joints is
A. not permitted.
B. permissible for mild steel.
C. permissible for most metals or alloys that are not heat treated.

E.8.1.8.7.A.1 E04
Which statement concerning soldering is correct?
A. Joints in electric wire to be soldered should be mechanically secure prior to soldering.
B. Changeable shades of blue can be observed on the surface of a copper soldering tip when the proper temperature for soldering has been reached.
C. If the soldering temperature is too high, the solder will form in lumps and not produce a positive bond.

E.8.1.8.8.A.1 E04
A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been
A. tinned.
B. fluxed.
C. polished.

E.8.1.8.9.A.1 E04
Which of the following can normally be welded without adversely affecting strength?
1. Aircraft bolts.
2. SAE 4130 chrome/molybdenum tubing.
3. Spring steel struts.
4. Most heat-treated steel/nickel alloy components.
A. 2.
B. 2 and 4.
C. 1 and 3.

E.8.1.9.0.A.1 E04
In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the
A. melting point of the filler metal.
B. temperature of the flame.
C. amount of heat applied to the work.

E.8.1.9.1.A.1 E04
Why should a carburizing flame be avoided when welding steel?
A. It hardens the surface.
B. It removes the carbon content.
C. A cold weld will result.

E.8.1.9.2.A.1 E04
The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is/are
A. current setting or flame temperature.
B. material compatibility.
C. ambient conditions.

E.8.1.9.3.A.1 E04
The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum welding should
A. be neutral and soft.
B. contain an excess of acetylene and leave the tip at a relatively low speed.
C. be slightly oxidizing.

E.8.1.9.4.A.1 E04
A very thin and pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because it will
A. transfer too much heat to the work.
B. have a tendency to overheat and become brittle.
C. cool too rapidly.

E.8.1.9.5.A.1 E04
Filing or grinding a weld bead
A. may be performed to achieve a smoother surface.
B. reduces the strength of the joint.
C. may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform material thickness.

E.8.1.9.6.A.1 E04
Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 PSI
A. is dangerously unstable.
B. should be used when a reducing flame is necessary.
C. is usually necessary when welding metal over 3/8-inch thick.

E.8.1.9.7.A.1 E04
Cylinders used to transport and store acetylene
A. are green in color.
B. contain acetone.
C. are pressure tested to 3,000 PSI.

E.8.1.9.8.A.1 E04
A welding torch backfire may be caused by
A. using too much acetylene.
B. a loose tip.
C. a tip temperature that is too cool.

E.8.1.9.9.A.1 E05
Which statement concerning a welding process is true?
A. The inert arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the atmosphere.
B. In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used for steel is covered with a thin coating of flux.
C. In the metallic arc welding process, filler material, if needed, is provided by a separate metal rod of the proper material held in the arc.

E.8.2.0.0.A.1 E05
Where should the flux be applied when oxyacetylene welding aluminum?
A. Applied only to the welding rod.
B. Painted on the surface to be welded and applied to the welding rod.
C. Painted only on the surface to be welded.

E.8.2.0.1.A.1 E05
What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminum?
A. Removes dirt, grease, and oil.
B. Minimizes or prevents oxidation.
C. Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod.

E.8.2.0.2.A.1 E05
Why are aluminum plates 1/4 inch or more thick usually preheated before welding?
A. Reduces internal stresses and assures more complete penetration.
B. Reduces welding time.
C. Prevents corrosion and ensures proper distribution of flux.

E.8.2.0.3.A.1 E05
How should a welding torch flame be adjusted to weld stainless steel?
A. Neutral.
B. Slightly oxidizing.
C. Slightly carburizing.

E.8.2.0.4.A.1 E05
Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding aluminum to use a
A. filler.
B. solvent.
C. flux.

E.8.2.0.5.A.1 E05
In gas welding, the amount of heat applied to the material being welded is controlled by the
A. distance the tip is held from the work.
B. amount of gas pressure used.
C. size of the tip opening.

E.8.2.0.6.A.1 E05
Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of
A. bronze.
B. seamless aluminum.
C. steel.

E.8.2.0.7.A.1 E05
When inspecting a butt welded joint by visual means,
A. look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead.
B. the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
C. the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal.

E.8.2.0.8.A.1 E05
Annealing of aluminum
A. increases the tensile strength.
B. makes the material brittle.
C. removes stresses caused by forming.

E.8.2.0.9.A.1 E05
Edge notching is generally recommended in butt welding above a certain thickness of aluminum because it
A. aids in getting full penetration of the metal and prevents local distortion.
B. helps hold the metal in alignment during welding.
C. aids in the removal or penetration of oxides on the metal surface.

E.8.2.1.0.A.1 E05
If too much acetylene is used in the welding of stainless steel,
A. oxide will be formed on the base metal close to the weld.
B. a porous weld will result.
C. the metal will absorb carbon and lose its resistance to corrosion.

E.8.2.1.1.A.1 E05
The shielding gases generally used in the Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding of aluminum consist of
A. a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
B. helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon.
C. nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen.

F.8.2.1.2.A.1 F01
The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the pilot to compensate for and/or accomplish which of the following?
A. Attitude and airspeed.
B. Lateral and yaw position.
C. Torque and directional control.

F.8.2.1.3.A.1 F01
The vertical flight of a helicopter is controlled by
A. collective pitch changes.
B. cyclic pitch changes.
C. increasing or decreasing the RPM of the main rotor.

F.8.2.1.4.A.1 F01
A decrease in pitch angle of the tail rotor blades on a helicopter
A. causes the tail to pivot in the opposite direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis.
B. causes the tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis.
C. is required to counteract main rotor torque produced by takeoff RPM.

F.8.2.1.5.A.1 F01
In rotorcraft external-loading, the ideal location of the cargo release is where the line of action passes
A. aft of the center of gravity at all times.
B. forward of the center of gravity at all times.
C. through the center of gravity at all times.

F.8.2.1.6.A.1 F01
The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing and the relative wind is known as the
A. angle of attack.
B. angle of incidence.
C. longitudinal dihedral angle.

F.8.2.1.7.A.1 F01
A helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration, changes direction by
A. varying the pitch of the main rotor blades.
B. changing rotor RPM.
C. tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction.

F.8.2.1.8.A.1 F01
The purpose in checking main rotor blade tracking is to determine the
A. extent of an out of balance condition during rotation.
B. flight path of the blades during rotation.
C. relative position of the blades during rotation.

F.8.2.1.9.A.1 F01
In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor, directional control is maintained by
A. tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction.
B. changing the tail rotor RPM.
C. varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades.

F.8.2.2.0.A.1 F01
If a single rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is
A. equal to the retreating blade.
B. more than the retreating blade.
C. less than the retreating blade.

F.8.2.2.1.A.1 F01
Main rotor blades that do not cone by the same amount during rotation are said to be out of
A. balance.
B. collective pitch.
C. track.

F.8.2.2.2.A.1 F01
One purpose of the freewheeling unit required between the engine and the helicopter transmission is to
A. disconnect the rotor from the engine to relieve the starter load.
B. automatically disengage the rotor from the engine in case of an engine failure.
C. permit practice of autorotation landings.

F.8.2.2.3.A.1 F01
Which statement is correct concerning torque effect on helicopters?
A. As horsepower decreases, torque increases.
B. Torque direction is the opposite of rotor blade rotation.
C. Torque direction is the same as rotor blade rotation.

F.8.2.2.4.A.1 F01
What is the purpose of the free wheeling unit in a helicopter drive system?
A. It releases the rotor brake for starting.
B. It relieves bending stress on the rotor blades during starting.
C. It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine stops or slows below the equivalent of rotor RPM.

F.8.2.2.5.A.1 F01
Movement about the longitudinal axis (roll) in a helicopter is effected by movement of the
A. cyclic pitch control.
B. collective pitch control.
C. tail rotor pitch control.

F.8.2.2.6.A.1 F01
Movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a helicopter is effected by movement of the
A. collective pitch control.
B. cyclic pitch control.
C. tail rotor pitch control.

F.8.2.2.7.B.1 F02
Wing dihedral, a rigging consideration on most airplanes of conventional design, contributes most to stability of the airplane about its
A. longitudinal axis.
B. lateral axis.
C. vertical axis.

F.8.2.2.8.B.1 F02
Other than the manufacturer maintenance manual what other document could be used to determine the primary flight control surface deflection for an imported aircraft that is reassembled after shipment?
A. The certificate of airworthiness issued by the importing country.
B. Import manual for the aircraft.
C. Aircraft type certificate data sheet.

F.8.2.2.9.A.1 F02
If a pilot reports that an airplane flies left wing heavy, this condition may be corrected by
A. increasing the dihedral angle of the left wing, or decreasing the dihedral angle of the right wing, or both.
B. increasing the angle of incidence of the left wing, or decreasing the angle of incidence of the right wing, or both.
C. adjusting the dihedral angle of the left wing so that differential pressure between the upper and lower wing surfaces is increased.

F.8.2.3.0.A.1 F02
If the vertical fin of a single engine, propeller driven airplane is rigged properly, it will generally be parallel to
A. both the longitudinal and vertical axes.
B. the vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis.
C. the longitudinal axis but not the vertical axis.

F.8.2.3.1.A.1 F02
An airplane which has good longitudinal stability should have a minimum tendency to
A. pitch.
B. roll.
C. yaw.

F.8.2.3.2.A.1 F02
As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the center of pressure will
A. move toward the leading edge.
B. remain stationary because both lift and drag components increase proportionally to increased angle of attack.
C. move toward the trailing edge.

F.8.2.3.3.A.1 F02
The angle of incidence is that acute angle formed by
A. a line parallel to the wing from root to tip and a line parallel to the lateral axis of the aircraft.
B. a line parallel to the wing chord and a line parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
C. the angular difference between the setting of the main airfoil and the auxiliary airfoil (horizontal stabilizer) in reference to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

F.8.2.3.4.A.1 F02
An airplane's center of lift is usually located aft of its center of gravity
A. to improve stability about the longitudinal axis.
B. so that the airplane will have a tail heavy tendency.
C. so that the airplane will have a nose heavy tendency.

F.8.2.3.5.A.1 F02
An airplane is controlled directionally about its vertical axis by the
A. ailerons.
B. elevator(s).
C. rudder.

F.8.2.3.6.A.1 F02
The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to provide rotation about the
A. vertical axis.
B. longitudinal axis.
C. lateral axis.

F.8.2.3.7.A.1 F02
Washing in the left wing of a monoplane, for purposes of rigging corrections after flight test, will have what effect on the lift and drag of that wing?
A. Both drag and lift will decrease due to decreased angle of attack.
B. Both drag and lift will increase due to increased angle of attack.
C. The drag will decrease due to the effect of the lift increase.

F.8.2.3.8.B.1 F02
What type of flap system increases the wing area and changes the wing camber?
A. Fowler flaps.
B. Slotted flaps.
C. Split flaps.

F.8.2.3.9.A.1 F02
If the right wing of a monoplane is improperly rigged to a greater angle of incidence than designated in the manufacturer's specifications, it will cause the
A. airplane to be off balance both laterally and directionally.
B. airplane to pitch and roll about the lateral axis.
C. right wing to have both an increased lift and a decreased drag.

F.8.2.4.0.A.1 F02
The chord of a wing is measured from
A. leading edge to trailing edge.
B. wingtip to wingtip.
C. wing root to the wingtip.

F.8.2.4.1.A.1 F02
When the lift of an airfoil increases, the drag will
A. increase while the lift is changing but will return to its original value.
B. also increase.
C. decrease.

F.8.2.4.2.A.1 F02
What physical factors are involved in the aspect ratio of airplane wings?
A. Dihedral and angle of attack.
B. Span and chord.
C. Thickness and chord.

F.8.2.4.3.A.1 F02
Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will affect the balance of the airplane about its
A. vertical axis.
B. lateral axis.
C. longitudinal axis.

F.8.2.4.4.A.1 F02
An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that has been set into motion has
A. poor lateral stability.
B. poor longitudinal stability.
C. good lateral stability.

F.8.2.4.5.A.1 F02
The purpose of wing slats is to
A. reduce stalling speed.
B. decrease drag.
C. increase speed on takeoff.

F.8.2.4.6.A.1 F02
The angle of incidence of an airplane
A. does not change in flight.
B. affects the dihedral of the wings.
C. is that angle between the relative wind and the chord of the wing.

F.8.2.4.7.A.1 F02
Buffeting is the intermittent application of forces to a part of an airplane. It is caused by
A. incorrect rigging of flaps.
B. an unsteady flow from turbulence.
C. incorrect rigging of ailerons.

F.8.2.4.8.A.1 F02
Movement of an airplane along its lateral axis (roll) is also movement
A. around or about the longitudinal axis controlled by the elevator.
B. around or about the lateral axis controlled by the ailerons.
C. around or about the longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons.

F.8.2.4.9.A.1 F02
The primary purpose of stall strips is to
A. provide added lift at high angles of attack.
B. stall the inboard portion of the wings first.
C. provide added lift at slow speeds.

F.8.2.5.0.A.1 F02
Rigging and alignment checks should not be undertaken in the open; however, if this cannot be avoided, the aircraft should be positioned
A. facing any direction since it makes no difference if the wind is steady (not gusting).
B. with the nose into the wind.
C. obliquely into the wind.

F.8.2.5.1.A.1 F03
The correct dihedral angle can be determined by
A. measuring the angular setting of each wing at the rear spar with a bubble protractor.
B. placing a straightedge and bubble protractor across the spars while the airplane is in flying position.
C. using a dihedral board and bubble level along the front spar of each wing.

F.8.2.5.2.A.1 F03
The dihedral angle of a wing may be measured by placing a straightedge and level protractor on the
A. wing chord.
B. front spar.
C. wing root.

F.8.2.5.3.A.1 F03
Where would you find precise information to perform a symmetry alignment check for a particular aircraft?
A. Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet.
B. Manufacturer's service bulletins.
C. Aircraft service or maintenance manual.

F.8.2.5.4.A.1 F03
Where is the buttock line or buttline of an aircraft?
A. A height measurement left or right of, and perpendicular to, the horizontal centerline.
B. A width measurement left of, and perpendicular to, the vertical centerline.
C. A width measurement left or right of, and parallel to, the vertical centerline.

F.8.2.5.5.A.1 F03
Where is fuselage station No. 137 located?
A. Aft of the engine.
B. 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference line.
C. 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed reference line.

F.8.2.5.6.A.1 F03
Proper wing twist in a sheet metal constructed wing can usually be checked by utilizing a
A. plum bob, string, and straightedge.
B. straightedge, tape measure, and carpenter's square.
C. bubble level and special fixtures described by the manufacturer.

F.8.2.5.7.B.1 F04
The vast majority of aircraft control cables are terminated with swaged terminals, that must be
A. corrosion treated to show compliance with the manufacturers requirements after the swaging operation.
B. pull tested to show compliance with the manufactures requirements after the swaging operation.
C. checked with a go-no-go gauge before and after, to show compliance with the manufacturers requirements after the swaging operation.

F.8.2.5.8.A.1 F04
What nondestructive checking method is normally used to ensure that the correct amount of swaging has taken place when installing swaged-type terminals on aircraft control cable?
A. Check the surface of the swaged portion of the terminal for small cracks which indicate incomplete swaging.
B. Measure the finished length of the terminal barrel and compare with the beginning length.
C. Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of the swaged portion of the terminal.

F.8.2.5.9.A.1 F04
When inspecting a control cable turnbuckle for proper installation, determine that
A. the terminal end threads are visible through the safety hole in the barrel.
B. the safety wire ends are wrapped a minimum of four turns around the terminal end shanks.
C. no more than four threads are exposed on either side of the turnbuckle barrel.

F.8.2.6.0.A.1 F04
If all instructions issued by the swaging tool manufacturer are followed when swaging a cable terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength should be
A. the full rated strength of the cable.
B. 70 percent of the full rated strength of the cable.
C. 80 percent of the full rated strength of the cable.

F.8.2.6.1.A.1 F04
Which is an acceptable safety device for a castle nut when installed on secondary structures?
A. Star washer.
B. Cotter pin.
C. Lockwasher.

F.8.2.6.2.A.1 F04
When used in close proximity to magnetic compasses, cotter pins are made of what material?
A. Anodized aluminum alloy.
B. Corrosion resisting steel.
C. Cadmium plated low carbon steel.

F.8.2.6.3.A.1 F04
When a fiber or nylon insert-type, self-locking nut can be threaded on a bolt or stud through the insert with only the fingers, it should be
A. reused only in a different location.
B. rejected.
C. re-torqued frequently.

F.8.2.6.4.A.1 F04
The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide
A. lateral stability.
B. directional stability.
C. longitudinal stability.

F.8.2.6.5.A.1 F05
How are changes in direction of a control cable accomplished?
A. Pulleys.
B. Fairleads.
C. Bell cranks.

F.8.2.6.6.A.1 F05
What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems?
A. 1/8 inch.
B. 1/4 inch.
C. 5/16 inch.

F.8.2.6.7.A.1 F05
After repairing or re covering a rudder, the surface should be rebalanced
A. in its normal flight position.
B. to its spanwise axis.
C. to manufacturer's specifications.

F.8.2.6.8.A.1 F05
Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel control cable and running it back and forth over the length of the cable is generally a satisfactory method of
A. applying par-al-ketone.
B. inspecting for wear or corrosion.
C. inspecting for broken wires.

F.8.2.6.9.A.1 F05
The cable operated control system of an all metal aircraft, not incorporating a temperature compensating device, has been rigged to the correct tension in a heated hangar. If the aircraft is operated in very cold weather, the cable tension will
A. decrease when the aircraft structure and cables become cold.
B. increase when the aircraft structure and cables become cold.
C. be unaffected if stainless steel cable is installed.

F.8.2.7.0.A.1 F05
Very often, repairs to a control surface require static rebalancing of the control surface. Generally, flight control balance condition may be determined by
A. suspending the control surface from its leading edge in the streamline position and checking weight distribution.
B. the behavior of the trailing edge when the surface is suspended from its hinge points.
C. checking for equal distribution of weight throughout the control surface.

F.8.2.7.1.A.1 F05
Excessive wear on both of the sides of a control cable pulley groove is evidence of
A. excessive cable tension.
B. pulley misalignment.
C. cable misalignment.

F.8.2.7.2.A.1 F05
Fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a cable more than
A. 12?
B. 3?
C. 8?

F.8.2.7.3.B.1 F05
Where does the breakage of control cable wires occur most frequently?
A. Breakage usually occurs where cables are swaged to turnbuckle and ball terminals.
B. Breakage sites are unpredictable and usually occur randomly anywhere along the length of a cable.
C. Breakage usually occurs where cables pass over pulleys and through fairleads.

F.8.2.7.4.A.1 F05
With which system is differential control associated?
A. Aileron.
B. Trim.
C. Elevator.

F.8.2.7.5.A.1 F05
Which statement concerning the 100-hour inspection of an airplane equipped with a push pull tube type control system is true?
A. The terminal end threads of the turnbuckles should be visible through the safety hole in the barrel.
B. The threaded rod ends should not be adjusted in length for rigging purposes because the rod ends have been properly positioned and staked during manufacture.
C. The threaded rod ends should be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the inspection hole provided.

F.8.2.7.6.A.1 F05
If control cables are adjusted properly and the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause is
A. oil can effects on the control surfaces.
B. excessive cable tension.
C. worn attachment fittings.

F.8.2.7.7.A.1 F05
Aircraft flight control trim systems must be designed and installed so that the
A. pilot can determine the relative position of the trim tab from the cockpit.
B. operating control and the trim tab will always move in the same direction.
C. trim system will disengage or become inoperative if the primary flight control system fails.

F.8.2.7.8.A.1 F05
Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line of flight is referred to as
A. longitudinal stability.
B. lateral stability.
C. directional stability.

F.8.2.7.9.A.1 F05
The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to
A. contribute to the static balance of the control surface.
B. make in flight trim adjustments possible.
C. assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces.

F.8.2.8.0.A.1 F05
If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the right aileron will move
A. up and the elevator will move down.
B. down and the elevator will move down.
C. down and the elevator will move up.

F.8.2.8.1.A.1 F05
Movement of the cockpit control toward the nosedown position during a ground operational check of the elevator trim tab system will cause the trailing edge of the trim tab to move in which direction?
A. Downward regardless of elevator position.
B. Upward regardless of elevator position.
C. Downward if the elevator is in the UP position and upward if the elevator is in the DOWN position.

F.8.2.8.2.A.1 F05
If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved forward and to the right, the left aileron will move
A. down and the elevator will move up.
B. up and the elevator will move down.
C. down and the elevator will move down.

F.8.2.8.3.A.1 F05
If the travel of an airplane's controls is correct but the cables are rigged exceptionally tight, what probable effect will this have when flying the airplane?
A. The pilot will be unable to fly the airplane hands off.
B. The airplane will be heavy on the controls.
C. The airplane will tend to fall off on one wing.

F.8.2.8.4.A.1 F05
During inspection of the flight control system of an airplane equipped with differential-type aileron control, side to side movement of the control stick will cause
A. each aileron to have greater down travel (from the streamlined position) than up travel.
B. the left aileron to move through a greater number of degrees (from full up to full down) than the right aileron.
C. each aileron to have a greater up travel (from the streamlined position) than down travel.

F.8.2.8.5.A.1 F05
A universal propeller protractor used to measure the degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
A. with the aileron in the DOWN position.
B. with the aileron in the NEUTRAL position.
C. when the aircraft is in a level flight attitude.

F.8.2.8.6.A.1 F05
The universal propeller protractor can be used to measure
A. propeller track.
B. aspect ratio of a wing.
C. degrees of flap travel.

F.8.2.8.7.A.1 F05
(Refer to figure 8.) Identify the cable that is used in primary control systems and in other places where operation over pulleys is frequent.
A. 2.
B. 1.
C. 3.

F.8.2.8.8.A.1 F05
A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to
A. provide a means of changing cable tension in flight.
B. retain a set tension.
C. increase the cable tension in cold weather.

F.8.2.8.9.A.1 F05
(Refer to figure 9.) When the outside air temperature is 80 캟, select the acceptable 3/16 cable tension range.
A. 130 pounds minimum, 140 pounds maximum.
B. 120 pounds minimum, 140 pounds maximum.
C. 117 pounds minimum, 143 pounds maximum.

F.8.2.9.0.A.1 F05
Differential control on an aileron system means that
A. one aileron on one wing travels further up than the aileron on the opposite wing to adjust for wash in and wash out.
B. the up travel is more than the down travel.
C. the down travel is more than the up travel.

F.8.2.9.1.A.1 F06
Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft indoors for weighing?
A. So that air currents do not destabilize the scales.
B. So weighing scales may be calibrated to 0 pounds.
C. So aircraft may be placed in a level position.

F.8.2.9.2.A.1 F06
Which should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?
A. Install critical stress panels or plates.
B. Determine that the fuel tanks are empty.
C. Make sure the aircraft is leveled laterally.

G.8.2.9.3.A.1 G01
Which statement about Airworthiness Directives (AD's) is true?
A. Compliance with an AD is not mandatory unless the aircraft affected is for hire.
B. AD's are information alert bulletins issued by the airframe, powerplant, or component manufacturer.
C. Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded in the maintenance records.

G.8.2.9.4.A.1 G01
When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary information should be obtained from
A. illustrated parts manual for the aircraft.
B. maintenance instructions published by the aircraft and/or equipment manufacturer.
C. the aircraft maintenance manual.

G.8.2.9.5.A.1 G01
Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an annual inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to accomplish the repair)?
A. An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may approve the aircraft for return to service.
B. Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to service, after the major repair.
C. An appropriately rated mechanic or repair station may repair the defect and approve the aircraft for return to service.

G.8.2.9.6.A.1 G01
Radio equipment installations made in accordance with Supplemental Type Certificate data require approval for return to service
A. by an airframe and powerplant mechanic.
B. by the holder of an inspection authorization.
C. by a field approval from the FAA.

G.8.2.9.7.B.1 G01
An aircraft that is required by Section 91.409, to have a 100-hour inspection may be flown beyond the inspection requirement
A. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10 flight hours.
B. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but a special flight permit is necessary.
C. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 15 flight hours.

G.8.2.9.8.A.1 G01
Where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of an aircraft after a 100-hour or annual inspection?
A. 14 CFR Part 65.
B. 14 CFR Part 43.
C. 14 CFR Part 91.

G.8.2.9.9.A.1 G01
The maximum time a 100-hour inspection may be extended is
A. 10 hours.
B. 10 hours with a special flight permit.
C. 12 hours with a special flight permit.

G.8.3.0.0.A.1 G01
Which statement is correct when an aircraft has not been approved for return to service after an annual inspection because of several items requiring minor repair?
A. Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to service.
B. An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects, but an IA must approve the aircraft for return to service.
C. An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects and approve the aircraft for return to service.

G.8.3.0.1.A.1 G01
An aircraft that is due an annual inspection may be flown
A. for the purpose of performing maintenance.
B. for a period of time not to exceed 10 hours.
C. if a special permit has been issued for the aircraft.

G.8.3.0.2.A.1 G01
For an individual (not a repair station) to conduct a complete 100-hour inspection on an aircraft and approve it for return to service requires a mechanic certificate with an
A. airframe rating only.
B. airframe and powerplant ratings with an inspection authorization.
C. airframe and powerplant ratings.

G.8.3.0.3.A.1 G01
Where would you find the operating conditions that make a 100-hour inspection mandatory?
A. 14 CFR part 91.
B. 14 CFR part 43.
C. AC 43.13-2A.

G.8.3.0.4.A.1 G01
Large airplanes and turbine-powered multiengine airplanes operated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules, must be inspected
A. in accordance with a continuous airworthiness maintenance program (camp program) authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.
B. in accordance with the progressive inspection requirements of Federal Aviation Regulation Section 91.409(d).
C. in accordance with an inspection program authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.

K.8.3.0.5.A.1 K01
Exposure to and/or storage near which of the following is considered harmful to aircraft tires?
1. Low humidity.
2. Fuel.
3. Oil.
4. Ozone.
5. Helium.
6. Electrical equipment.
7. Hydraulic fluid.
8. Solvents.
A. 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8.
B. 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8.
C. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8.

K.8.3.0.6.A.1 K01
What would be the effect if the piston return spring broke in a brake master cylinder?
A. The brake travel would become excessive.
B. The brakes would become spongy.
C. The brakes would drag.

K.8.3.0.7.A.1 K01
In brake service work, the term ``bleeding brakes'' is the process of
A. replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.
B. withdrawing air only from the system.
C. withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has entered the system.

K.8.3.0.8.A.1 K01
To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression resulting from landing impact,
A. various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow.
B. the air is forced through a restricted orifice in the reverse direction.
C. the metering pin gradually reduces the size of the orifice as the shock strut extends.

K.8.3.0.9.A.1 K01
A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner. The probable cause is
A. the hydraulic master cylinder piston return spring is weak.
B. air in the brake hydraulic system.
C. the hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking.

K.8.3.1.0.A.1 K01
Aside from an external leak in the line, what will cause parking brakes to creep continually to the OFF position?
A. Insufficient hydraulic fluid in the reservoir.
B. Glazed brake linings.
C. An internal leak in the master cylinder.

K.8.3.1.1.A.1 K01
Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend that the tubes in newly installed tires be first inflated, fully deflated, and then reinflated to the correct pressure?
A. To eliminate all the air between the tube and the inside of the tire.
B. To allow the tube to position itself correctly inside the tire.
C. To test the entire assembly for leaks.

K.8.3.1.2.A.1 K01
The metering pins in oleo shock struts serve to
A. retard the flow of oil as the struts are compressed.
B. meter the proper amount of air in the struts.
C. lock the struts in the DOWN position.

K.8.3.1.3.A.1 K01
After performing maintenance on an aircraft's landing gear system which may have affected the system's operation, it is usually necessary to
A. make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks.
B. re-inspect the area after the first flight.
C. conduct a flight test.

K.8.3.1.4.A.1 K01
Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often recommend that the tires on split rim wheels be deflated before removing the wheel from the axle?
A. To relieve the strain on the wheel retaining nut and axle threads.
B. As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold the wheel halves together have been damaged or weakened.
C. To remove the static load imposed upon the wheel bearings by the inflated tire.

K.8.3.1.5.A.1 K01
The braking action of a cleveland disk brake is accomplished by compressing a rotating brake disk between two opposite brake linings. How is equal pressure on both sides of the rotating disk assured?
A. By allowing the brake rotor to float to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.
B. By allowing the brake linings to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.
C. By allowing the caliper to float to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.

K.8.3.1.6.A.1 K01
If it is determined that spongy brake action is not caused by air in the brake system, what is the next most likely cause?
A. Deteriorated flexible hoses.
B. Internal leakage in the master cylinder.
C. Worn brake lining.

K.8.3.1.7.A.1 K01
Many brake types can be adapted to operate mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not adaptable to mechanical operation?
A. Expander tube type.
B. Single disk spot type.
C. Single servo type.

K.8.3.1.8.B.1 K01
A brake debooster valve is installed in systems where the high pressure of the hydraulic system (3000 psi) is used to operate brakes
A. that are used on aircraft having high landing speeds.
B. that are designed to work with lower pressure.
C. that are used in conjunction with an antiskid system.

K.8.3.1.9.A.1 K01
A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending onto the sidewall of a tube type tire is a
A. wheel weight reference mark..
B. wheel-to-tire balance mark.
C. slippage mark.

K.8.3.2.0.A.1 K01
When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications that the air has been purged from the system is
A. full brake pedal travel.
B. partial brake pedal travel.
C. firm brake pedals.

K.8.3.2.1.A.1 K01
Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the
A. wheel flange.
B. brake linings.
C. wheel hub.

K.8.3.2.2.A.1 K01
Debooster valves are used in brake systems primarily to
A. reduce the pressure and release the brakes rapidly.
B. reduce brake pressure and maintain static pressure.
C. ensure rapid application and release of the brakes.

K.8.3.2.3.A.1 K01
The repair for an out of tolerance toe in condition of main landing gear wheels determined not to be the result of bent or twisted components consists of
A. shimming the axle in the oleo trunnion.
B. placing shims or spacers behind the bearing of the out of tolerance wheel or wheels.
C. inserting, removing, or changing the location of washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of the scissor torque links.

K.8.3.2.4.A.1 K01
An embossed letter ``H'' on an air valve core stem
A. indicates high-pressure type.
B. indicates hydraulic type.
C. is the manufacturer's trademark.

K.8.3.2.5.A.1 K01
The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to
A. prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.
B. reduce excessive wear and turbulence.
C. distribute the aircraft weight properly.

K.8.3.2.6.B.1 K01
Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that have
A. high landing speeds.
B. low normal hydraulic system pressure.
C. more than one brake assembly per axle.

K.8.3.2.7.A.1 K01
On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, some means must be provided to
A. extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails.
B. retract and extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails.
C. prevent the throttle from being reduced below a safe power setting while the landing gear is retracted.

K.8.3.2.8.A.1 K01
An automatic damping action occurs at the steer damper if for any reason the flow of high pressure fluid is removed from the
A. outlet of the steer damper.
B. replenishing check valve.
C. inlet of the steer damper.

K.8.3.2.9.A.1 K01
What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?
A. Limit compression stroke.
B. Maintain correct wheel alignment.
C. Hold the strut in place.

K.8.3.3.0.A.1 K01
The removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate on an aircraft owned or operated is considered to be
A. a violation of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
B. preventive maintenance.
C. a minor repair.

K.8.3.3.1.A.1 K01
Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to operate the brakes generally
A. use power brake control valves.
B. do not use brake system accumulators.
C. use independent master cylinder systems.

K.8.3.3.2.A.1 K01
What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a master cylinder will have on a brake system?
A. The reservoir will be filled by reverse flow.
B. The restriction will cause slow release of the brakes.
C. The brakes will operate normally.

K.8.3.3.3.A.1 K01
When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is used, the initial shock of landing is cushioned by
A. compression of the fluid.
B. the fluid being forced through a metered opening.
C. compression of the air charge.

K.8.3.3.4.B.1 K01
Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can cause
A. the pedal to slowly creep down while pedal pressure is applied.
B. fading brakes.
C. slow release of brakes.

K.8.3.3.5.A.1 K01
A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a landing gear oleo shock strut to
A. limit the extension stroke.
B. limit the extension of the torque arm.
C. reduce the rebound effect.

K.8.3.3.6.A.1 K01
The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to
A. prevent heavy landing gear from falling too rapidly upon extension.
B. provide a means of disconnecting the normal source of hydraulic power and connecting the emergency source of power.
C. ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order.

K.8.3.3.7.A.1 K01
The pressure source for power brakes is
A. the main hydraulic system.
B. a master cylinder.
C. the power brake reservoir.

K.8.3.3.8.A.1 K01
Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated multiple disk type brake assemblies?
A. There are no minimum or maximum disk clearance checks required due to the use of self compensating cylinder assemblies.
B. No parking brake provisions are possible for this type of brake assembly.
C. Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot.

K.8.3.3.9.A.1 K01
What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line to isolate the emergency brake system from the normal power brake control valve system?
A. A shuttle valve.
B. A bypass valve.
C. An orifice check valve.

K.8.3.4.0.B.1 K01
When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 the strut should be
A. collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening.
B. partially extended and fluid added at the filler opening.
C. fully extended and fluid added at the filler opening.

K.8.3.4.1.A.1 K01
Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found
A. in the aircraft manufacturer's service manual.
B. in the aircraft operations limitations.
C. on the airplane data plate.

K.8.3.4.2.A.1 K01
The purpose of a relief valve in a brake system is to
A. prevent the tire from skidding.
B. reduce pressure for brake application.
C. compensate for thermal expansion.

K.8.3.4.3.A.1 K01
Aircraft tire pressure should be checked
A. using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1-pound increments.
B. at least once a week or more often.
C. as soon as possible after each flight.

K.8.3.4.4.A.1 K01
If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing gear wheel assemblies intersects aft of the aircraft, the wheels can be termed as having
A. negative camber.
B. toe out.
C. toe in.

K.8.3.4.5.B.1 K01
What is the purpose of a compensating port or valve in a brake master cylinder of an independent brake system?
A. Permits the fluid to flow toward or away from the reservoir as temperature changes.
B. Prevents fluid from flowing back to the reservoir.
C. Assists in the master cylinder piston return.

K.8.3.4.6.A.1 K01
If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon initial landing contact, but functions correctly during taxi, the most probable cause is
A. a restricted metering pin orifice.
B. low air charge.
C. low fluid.

K.8.3.4.7.A.1 K01
What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose gear shock strut?
A. Provides steering of aircraft during ground operation.
B. Straightens the nosewheel.
C. Provides an internal shimmy damper.

K.8.3.4.8.A.1 K01
Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to determine the
A. physical condition of the strut itself.
B. amount of oil in the strut.
C. proper operating position of the strut.

K.8.3.4.9.A.1 K01
Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems primarily to
A. reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the volume of fluid flow.
B. relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive release.
C. reduce brake pressure and maintain static pressure.

K.8.3.5.0.A.1 K01
If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly serviced, the
A. air pressure should be increased.
B. strut should be disassembled and the metering pin orifice plate replaced.
C. strut should be removed, disassembled, and inspected.

K.8.3.5.1.A.1 K01
A high speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body and bead may be recapped
A. a maximum of three times.
B. only by the tire manufacturer.
C. an indefinite number of times.

K.8.3.5.2.A.1 K01
If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and single disk brakes has excessive brake pedal travel, but the brakes are hard and effective, the probable cause is
A. the master cylinder one way cup is leaking.
B. worn brake linings.
C. worn brake disk causing excessive clearance between the notches on the perimeter of the disk and the splines or keys on the wheel.

K.8.3.5.3.A.1 K01
The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can be obtained from
A. the information stamped on the aircraft wheel.
B. the aircraft service manual.
C. tire manufacturer's specifications.

K.8.3.5.4.A.1 K01
What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms during a landing?
A. Fluid level.
B. Air pressure.
C. Packing seals for correct installation.

K.8.3.5.5.A.1 K01
How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system?
A. By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy.
B. By noting the amount of fluid return to the master cylinder upon brake release.
C. By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the system pressure gauge for smooth, full scale deflection.

K.8.3.5.6.A.1 K01
The left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane on which no recent brake service work has been performed. The most probable cause is
A. excessively worn brake linings.
B. low fluid supply in the brake system reservoir.
C. foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder compensating port.

K.8.3.5.7.A.1 K01
If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake system, its position in the system will be
A. in the brake pressure line between the brake pedal and the brake accumulator.
B. between the brake control valve and the brake actuating cylinder.
C. between the pressure manifold of the main hydraulic system and the power brake control valve.

K.8.3.5.8.A.1 K01
The rubber seals used in a landing gear shock strut
A. are generally designed to be compatible with more than one type of fluid.
B. may be used only with a specific type of fluid.
C. are kept from direct contact with fluid by teflon or nylon backup rings.

K.8.3.5.9.A.1 K01
Lockout deboosters generally
A. cannot allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber.
B. allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber.
C. must be bled separately after brake bleeding has been completed.

K.8.3.6.0.A.1 K01
When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a tire to deflate, the tire should be
A. externally inspected for damage.
B. removed from the wheel and inspected for carcass and tread damage.
C. replaced.

K.8.3.6.1.B.1 K01
Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tires to
A. help deflect water away from the fuselage.
B. help reduce the possibility of hydroplaning.
C. help nose gear extension at higher air speeds.

K.8.3.6.2.A.1 K01
The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft tires are
A. proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and ground rolls into the wind.
B. minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and long ground rolls.
C. short ground rolls, slow taxi speeds, minimum braking, and proper tire inflation.

K.8.3.6.3.A.1 K01
The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will
A. melt at a specified elevated temperature.
B. prevent overinflation.
C. indicate tire tread separation.

K.8.3.6.4.A.1 K01
What action, if any, should be taken when there is a difference of more than 5 pounds of air pressure in tires mounted as duals?
A. Replace the tire with the lowest pressure.
B. Replace both tires.
C. Correct the discrepancy and enter in logbook.

K.8.3.6.5.A.1 K01
How long should you wait after a flight before checking tire pressure?
A. At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather).
B. At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather).
C. At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather).

K.8.3.6.6.A.1 K01
Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire is an indication of
A. excessive toe in.
B. underinflation.
C. overinflation.

K.8.3.6.7.A.1 K01
Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire is an indication of
A. overinflation.
B. excessive toe out.
C. incorrect camber.

K.8.3.6.8.A.1 K01
When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care should be taken to extend and compress the strut completely at least two times to
A. ensure proper packing ring seating and removal of air bubbles.
B. force out any excess fluid.
C. thoroughly lubricate the piston rod.

K.8.3.6.9.A.1 K01
In shock struts, chevron seals are used to
A. serve as a bearing surface.
B. prevent oil from escaping.
C. absorb bottoming effect.

K.8.3.7.0.A.1 K01
On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock strut is checked by
A. releasing the air and seeing that the oil is to the level of the filler plug.
B. measuring the length of the strut extension with a certain air pressure in the strut.
C. removing the oil filler plug and inserting a gauge.

K.8.3.7.1.B.1 K01
A pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive travel. A probable cause is
A. brake lining has oil or some foreign matter on the disks and linings.
B. brake rotors have worn.
C. lack of fluid in the brake system.

K.8.3.7.2.A.1 K01
A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when the throttle is
A. advanced and gear is down and locked.
B. retarded and gear is down and locked.
C. retarded and gear is not down and locked.

K.8.3.7.3.A.1 K01
An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing gear would most likely be a
A. split field series wound motor.
B. shunt field series wound motor.
C. split field shunt wound motor.

K.8.3.7.4.A.1 K01
When installing a chevron type seal in an aircraft hydraulic cylinder, the open side of the seal should face
A. the direction of fluid pressure.
B. up or forward when the unit is installed in a horizontal position.
C. opposite the direction of fluid pressure.

K.8.3.7.5.A.1 K01
Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable landing gear systems. The primary purpose of the centering device is to
A. engage the nosewheel steering.
B. center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel well.
C. align the nosewheel prior to touchdown.

K.8.3.7.6.A.1 K01
What device in a hydraulic system with a constant delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid when no demands are on the system?
A. Pressure regulator.
B. Pressure relief valve.
C. Shuttle valve.

K.8.3.7.7.A.1 K01
A fully charged hydraulic accumulator provides
A. positive fluid flow to the pump inlet.
B. a source for additional hydraulic power when heavy demands are placed on the system.
C. air pressure to the various hydraulic components.

K.8.3.7.8.A.1 K01
A hydraulic system referred to as a ``power pack'' system will
A. have an engine driven pump for greater pressure.
B. have all hydraulic power components located in one unit.
C. have a pressurized reservoir.

K.8.3.7.9.A.1 K01
A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow stripe running the length of the hose. This stripe
A. identifies that the hose is constructed of synthetic rubber and may be suitable for a wide range of applications.
B. identifies that the hose is for hydraulic fluid only.
C. is used to ensure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting.

K.8.3.8.0.A.1 K01
An O ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with
A. one or more white dots.
B. a blue stripe or dot.
C. a white and yellow stripe.

K.8.3.8.1.A.1 K01
What condition would most likely cause excessive fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic pump is operating?
A. Inadequate supply of fluid.
B. Accumulator air pressure low.
C. System relief valve sticking closed.

K.8.3.8.2.A.1 K01
A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose paper is identified as a
A. sediment trap.
B. cuno filter.
C. micronic filter.

K.8.3.8.3.A.1 K01
The purpose of an orifice check valve is to
A. restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in the other.
B. relieve pressure to a sensitive component.
C. relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow in the other direction.

K.8.3.8.4.A.1 K01
(Refer to figure 10.) The trunnion nut on an aircraft landing gear requires a torque of 320 inch-pounds. To reach the nut, a 2-inch straight adapter must be used on an 18-inch torque wrench. How many foot pounds will be indicated on the torque wrench when the required torque of the nut is reached?
A. 24.
B. 22.
C. 28.8.

K.8.3.8.5.A.1 K01
A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot pounds are required?
A. 36.6.
B. 38.
C. 36.8.

L.8.3.8.6.A.1 L01
To protect packing rings or seals from damage when it is necessary to install them over or inside threaded sections, the
A. packings should be stretched during installation to avoid contact with the threads.
B. threaded section should be covered with a suitable sleeve.
C. threaded section should be coated with a heavy grease.

L.8.3.8.7.A.1 L01
To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft hydraulic units, the most commonly used type of seal is the
A. O ring seal.
B. gasket seal.
C. chevron seal.

L.8.3.8.8.A.1 L01
Which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?
A. Check valve.
B. Metering piston.
C. Shutoff valve.

L.8.3.8.9.A.1 L01
Select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs pressurized fluid to one end of an actuating cylinder and simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from the other end.
A. Sequence.
B. Shuttle.
C. Selector.

L.8.3.9.0.A.1 L01
What function does the absolute pressure regulator perform in the pneumatic power system?
A. Regulates the compressor outlet air pressure to stabilize the system pressure.
B. Regulates the compressor inlet air to provide a stabilized source of air for the compressor.
C. Regulates the pneumatic system pressure to protect the moisture separator from internal explosion.

L.8.3.9.1.A.1 L01
(1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems as damage preventing units.
(2) Check valves are used in both hydraulic and pneumatic systems.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

L.8.3.9.2.A.1 L01
One of the distinguishing characteristics of an open center selector valve used in a hydraulic system is that
A. fluid flows through the valve in the OFF position.
B. a limited amount of fluid flows in one direction and no fluid flows in the opposite direction.
C. fluid flows in three directions in the ON position.

L.8.3.9.3.A.1 L01
What type of packings should be used in hydraulic components to be installed in a system containing Skydrol?
A. AN packings made of neoprene.
B. Packing materials made for ester base fluids.
C. AN packings made of natural rubber.

L.8.3.9.4.A.1 L01
Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems
A. as damage preventing units.
B. for one direction flow control.
C. to reduce the rate of airflow.

L.8.3.9.5.A.1 L01
An aircraft pneumatic system, which incorporates an engine driven multistage reciprocating compressor, also requires
A. a surge chamber.
B. an oil separator.
C. a moisture separator.

L.8.3.9.6.A.1 L01
The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is generally accomplished
A. through automatic bleed valves on individual components during system operation.
B. by allowing the system to remain inoperative for several hours.
C. by operating the various hydraulic components through several cycles.

L.8.3.9.7.A.1 L01
Pneumatic systems utilize
A. return lines.
B. relief valves.
C. diluter valves.

L.8.3.9.8.A.1 L01
The component in the hydraulic system that is used to direct the flow of fluid is the
A. check valve.
B. orifice check valve.
C. selector valve.

L.8.3.9.9.A.1 L01
What type of selector valve is one of the most commonly used in hydraulic systems to provide for simultaneous flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
A. Three port, four way valve.
B. Four port, closed center valve.
C. Two port, open center valve.

L.8.4.0.0.A.1 L01
What is the purpose of using backup rings with O rings in hydraulic systems above 1,500 PSI?
A. Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal between the moving and stationary part.
B. Provide a seal between two parts of a unit which move in relation to each other.
C. Prevent internal and external leakage of all moving parts within a hydraulic system.

L.8.4.0.1.A.1 L01
The purpose of the pressure regulator in a hydraulic system is to
A. prevent failure of components or rupture of hydraulic lines under excessive pressure.
B. regulate the amount of fluid flow to the actuating cylinders within the system.
C. maintain system operating pressure within a predetermined range and to unload the pump.

L.8.4.0.2.A.1 L01
A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a
A. gasket.
B. compound.
C. packing.

L.8.4.0.3.A.1 L01
Which characteristics apply to aircraft hydraulic systems?
1. Minimum maintenance requirements.
2. Lightweight.
3. About 80 percent operating efficiency (20 percent loss due to fluid friction).
4. Simple to inspect.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
B. 1, 2, 4.
C. 1, 3, 4.

L.8.4.0.4.A.1 L01
If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening
A. may distort the flare.
B. is acceptable.
C. may distort the cone.

L.8.4.0.5.A.1 L01
The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be made with
A. a straight tube to withstand the shocks and vibration to which it will be subjected.
B. enough bends to allow the tube to expand and contract with temperature changes and to absorb vibration.
C. a straight tube to permit proper alignment of the fitting and thereby reduce fluid loss through leakage.

L.8.4.0.6.A.1 L01
Extrusion of an O ring seal is prevented in a high pressure system by the use of a
A. backup ring on the side of the O ring next to the pressure.
B. U ring on the side of the O ring away from the pressure.
C. backup ring on the side of the O ring away from the pressure.

L.8.4.0.7.A.1 L01
What is one advantage of piston type hydraulic motors over electric motors?
A. They work satisfactorily over a wider temperature range.
B. There is no fire hazard if the motor is stalled.
C. They are considerably quieter in operation.

L.8.4.0.8.A.1 L01
Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to
A. drain the reservoir.
B. relieve system pressure.
C. discharge the preload.

L.8.4.0.9.A.1 L01
(Refer to figure 11.) Which fitting is an AN flared tube fitting?
A. 1.
B. 3.
C. 2.

L.8.4.1.0.A.1 L01
(Refer to figure 12.) Which illustration(s) show(s) the correct spiral for teflon backup rings?
A. 1 and 2.
B. 1 and 3.
C. 3.

L.8.4.1.1.A.1 L02
If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing materials, the correct hydraulic fluid to service the system is
A. mineral base oil.
B. phosphate ester base oil.
C. vegetable base oil.

L.8.4.1.2.B.1 L02
The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called
A. volatility.
B. viscosity.
C. acidity.

L.8.4.1.3.A.1 L02
What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?
A. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing.
B. The increase in volume of a fluid due to temperature change.
C. The fluid's ability to resist oxidation and deterioration for long periods.

L.8.4.1.4.A.1 L02
Which is a characteristic of petroleum base hydraulic fluid?
A. Nonflammable under all conditions.
B. Flammable under normal conditions.
C. Compatible to natural rubber seals and packings.

L.8.4.1.5.A.1 L02
(1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, use the type fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer's maintenance manual or on the instruction plate affixed to the reservoir or unit.
(2) Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed a specific color for each type of fluid.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

L.8.4.1.6.A.1 L02
Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?
A. Purple.
B. Red.
C. Blue.

L.8.4.1.7.A.1 L02
Which of the following is adversely affected by atmospheric humidity if left unprotected?
1. MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid.
2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid.
3. None of the above.
A. 2.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 3.

L.8.4.1.8.A.1 L02
Which is a characteristic of synthetic base hydraulic fluid?
A. Low flash point.
B. Low moisture retention.
C. High flash point.

L.8.4.1.9.A.1 L02
Which statement about fluids is correct?
A. All fluids are considered to be highly compressible.
B. Any fluid will completely fill its container.
C. All fluids readily transmit pressure.

L.8.4.2.0.A.1 L02
Three types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in civil aircraft are
A. mineral base, vegetable base, and phosphate ester base.
B. mineral base, phosphate ester base, and mixed mineral and phosphate ester base.
C. mineral base, phosphate ester base, and mixed vegetable and alcohol base.

L.8.4.2.1.A.1 L02
Which of the following lists only desirable properties of a good hydraulic fluid?
A. High viscosity, low flash point, chemical stability, high fire point.
B. Low viscosity, chemical stability, high flash point, high fire point.
C. High flash point, low viscosity, chemical stability, low fire point.

L.8.4.2.2.A.1 L02
Characteristics of MIL-H-8446 (Skydrol 500 A & B) hydraulic fluid are
A. blue color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.
B. light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.
C. light green color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.

L.8.4.2.3.A.1 L02
Where can information be obtained about the compatibility of fire resistant hydraulic fluid with aircraft materials?
A. Manufacturer's technical bulletins.
B. Aircraft manufacturer's specifications.
C. AC 43.13-1A.

L.8.4.2.4.A.1 L02
Characteristics of MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid are
A. light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.
B. blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural rubber seals.
C. red color, petroleum base, will burn, synthetic rubber seals.

L.8.4.2.5.A.1 L02
Characteristics of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic fluid are
A. blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural rubber seals.
B. light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.
C. red color, petroleum base, will burn, synthetic rubber seals.

L.8.4.2.6.B.1 L02
If an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base hydraulic fluid, but phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is used, what will be the effect on the system?
A. System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, and the seals will fail.
B. No effect.
C. System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, but there will be no seal problem.

L.8.4.2.7.A.1 L02
What is used to flush a system normally serviced with MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid?
A. Naphtha or varsol.
B. Lacquer thinner or trichlorethylene.
C. Methyl ethyl ketone or kerosene.

L.8.4.2.8.B.1 L02
Components containing phosphate ester-base hydraulic fluid may be cleaned with


A. Naphtha.
B. Carbon tetrachloride.
C. Stoddard solvent.

L.8.4.2.9.A.1 L02
How can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an airplane be determined?
A. Consult the aircraft manufacturer's service manual.
B. Refer to the aircraft parts manual.
C. Consult the aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet.

L.8.4.3.0.A.1 L02
Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to contamination from
A. ethylene propylene elastomers.
B. teflon seal material.
C. water in the atmosphere.

L.8.4.3.1.A.1 L02
(1) Materials which are Skydrol compatible or resistant include most common aircraft metals and polyurethane and epoxy paints.
(2) Skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible with nylon and natural fibers.

Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. only No. 1 is true.
C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

L.8.4.3.2.A.1 L03
The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid from either the normal source or an emergency source to an actuating cylinder is called a
A. bypass valve.
B. crossflow valve.
C. shuttle valve.

L.8.4.3.3.A.1 L03
The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is to transform
A. fluid pressure into useful work.
B. fluid motion into mechanical pressure and back again.
C. energy from one form to another.

L.8.4.3.4.A.1 L03
The primary function of the flap overload valve is to
A. boost normal system pressure to the flaps in order to overcome the air loads acting on the relatively large flap area.
B. prevent the flaps from being lowered at airspeeds which would impose excessive structural loads.
C. cause the flap segments located on opposite sides of the aircraft centerline to extend and retract together so that the aircraft will not become aerodynamically unbalanced to the extent that it becomes uncontrollable.

L.8.4.3.5.A.1 L03
A unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called
A. an accumulator.
B. an actuating cylinder.
C. a hydraulic pump.

L.8.4.3.6.A.1 L03
If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating valves in a hydraulic system, what particular sequence, if any, should be followed?
A. Units are independent of each other, and therefore, no particular sequence is necessary.
B. Units most distant from the hydraulic pump should be adjusted first.
C. Units with the highest pressure settings are adjusted first.

L.8.4.3.7.A.1 L03
If an aircraft's constant pressure hydraulic system cycles more frequently than usual and no fluid leakage can be detected, the most probable cause is
A. low accumulator air preload.
B. pump volume output too high.
C. a too high relief valve setting.

L.8.4.3.8.A.1 L03
Unloading valves are used with many engine driven hydraulic pumps to
A. dampen out pressure surges.
B. relieve system pressure.
C. relieve the pump pressure.

L.8.4.3.9.A.1 L03
What safety device is usually located between the driving unit and hydraulic pump drive shaft?
A. Thermal relief valve.
B. Pump motor safety switch.
C. Pump drive coupling shear section.

L.8.4.4.0.A.1 L03
Which valve installed in a hydraulic system will have the highest pressure setting?
A. Thermal relief valve.
B. Pressure regulator valve.
C. Main relief valve.

L.8.4.4.1.A.1 L03
Excluding lines, which components are required to make up a simple hydraulic system?
A. Pump, reservoir, relief valve, and shuttle valve.
B. Actuator, pressure reservoir, accumulator, and selector valve.
C. Pump, reservoir, selector valve, and actuator.

L.8.4.4.2.A.1 L03
Most variable displacement hydraulic pumps of current design
A. contain a built in means of system pressure regulation.
B. must be driven at a nearly constant speed in order to be practical for use.
C. are not practical for use with a closed center hydraulic system.

L.8.4.4.3.A.1 L03
In a gear type hydraulic pump, a mechanical safety device incorporated to protect the pump from overload is the
A. check valve.
B. shear pin.
C. bypass valve.

L.8.4.4.4.A.1 L03
After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump, it is found that the handle cannot be moved in the pumping direction (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an incorrectly installed
A. hand pump outport check valve.
B. hand pump inport check valve.
C. inport/outport orifice check valve.

L.8.4.4.5.A.1 L03
Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area. Pressure is usually expressed in
A. pounds per inch.
B. pounds per square inch.
C. pounds per cubic inch.

L.8.4.4.6.A.1 L03
If two actuating cylinders which have the same cross sectional area but different lengths of stroke are connected to the same source of hydraulic pressure, they will exert
A. different amounts of force but will move at the same rate of speed.
B. equal amounts of force and will move at the same rate of speed.
C. equal amounts of force but will move at different rates of speed.

L.8.4.4.7.A.1 L03
Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 PSI has been built up in a hydraulic system. The hand pump piston is 1 inch in diameter. A 1/2-inch line connects the hand pump to an actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the pressure in the line between the hand pump and the actuator?
A. 150 PSI.
B. 100 PSI.
C. 200 PSI.

L.8.4.4.8.A.1 L03
Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some aircraft hydraulic systems because of
A. fluid flammability.
B. the high heat generated from braking.
C. high pressures and high rates of fluid flow.

L.8.4.4.9.A.1 L03
Which is true regarding the ground check of a flap operating mechanism which has just been installed?
A. If the time required to operate the mechanism increases with successive operations, it indicates the air is being worked out of the system.
B. If the time required to operate the mechanism decreases with successive operations, it indicates the air is being worked out of the system.
C. All hydraulic lines and components should be checked for leaks by applying soapy water to all connections.

L.8.4.5.0.A.1 L03
A hydraulic system operational check during ground runup of an aircraft indicates that the wing flaps cannot be lowered using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using the emergency hand pump. Which is the most likely cause?
A. The pressure accumulator is not supplying pressure to the system.
B. The fluid level in the reservoir is low.
C. The flap selector valve has a severe internal leak.

L.8.4.5.1.A.1 L03
Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid which is not available to the main system pump. This fluid is retained to
A. supply fluid to the auxiliary pump.
B. prime the main system.
C. supply fluid to the pressure accumulator.

L.8.4.5.2.A.1 L03
The unit which causes one hydraulic operation to follow another in a definite order is called a
A. selector valve.
B. shuttle valve.
C. sequence valve.

L.8.4.5.3.A.1 L03
The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to
A. prevent the system pressure from rising above a predetermined amount due to thermal expansion.
B. relieve the pump of its load when no actuating units are being operated.
C. boost the pressure in portions of the system.

L.8.4.5.4.A.1 L03
Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate which of the following?
A. The main system relief valve is set too high.
B. The hand pump inport check valve is sticking open.
C. The hand pump outport check valve is sticking open.

L.8.4.5.5.A.1 L03
What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system permits fluid to flow freely in one direction, but restricts the rate at which fluid is allowed to flow in the other direction?
A. Orifice check valve.
B. Orifice restrictor.
C. Check valve.

L.8.4.5.6.A.1 L03
The main system pressure relief valve in a simple hydraulic system equipped with a power control valve should be adjusted
A. while one or more actuating units are in operation.
B. with the power control valve held in the CLOSED position.
C. with the power control valve in the OPEN position.

L.8.4.5.7.A.1 L03
A hydraulic accumulator is charged with an air preload of 1,000 PSI. When a hydraulic system pressure of 3,000 PSI is developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator will be
A. 4,000 PSI.
B. 3,000 PSI.
C. 1,000 PSI.

L.8.4.5.8.A.1 L03
How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented from entering the fluid system?
A. By including a valve that automatically closes when the fluid level lowers to a preset amount.
B. By physically separating the air chamber from the oil chamber with a flexible or movable separator.
C. By forcing the oil/air mixture through a centrifugal separating chamber that prevents the air from leaving the accumulator.

L.8.4.5.9.A.1 L03
After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until
A. the fluid side of the accumulator has been charged.
B. at least one selector valve has been actuated to allow fluid to flow into the fluid side of the accumulator.
C. the air pressure has become equal to the fluid pressure.

L.8.4.6.0.A.1 L03
Which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a main hydraulic system incorporating a pressure regulator?
A. Manually unseat all system check valves to allow unrestricted flow in both directions.
B. Adjust all other system relief valves which have a lower pressure setting.
C. Eliminate the action of the unloading valve.

L.8.4.6.1.A.1 L03
Which seals are used with vegetable base hydraulic fluids?
A. Natural rubber.
B. Butyl rubber.
C. Silicone rubber.

L.8.4.6.2.A.1 L03
The air that is expended and no longer needed when an actuating unit is operated in a pneumatic system is
A. returned to the compressor.
B. exhausted or dumped, usually overboard.
C. charged or pressurized for use during the next operating cycle.

L.8.4.6.3.A.1 L03
Some hydraulic systems incorporate a device which is designed to remain open to allow a normal fluid flow in the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an established rate. This device is generally referred to as a
A. hydraulic fuse.
B. flow regulator.
C. metering check valve.

L.8.4.6.4.A.1 L03
When hydraulic system pressure control and relief units fail to function properly, how are most systems protected against overpressure?
A. A shear section on the main hydraulic pump drive shaft.
B. One or more hydraulic fuses installed in the pressure and return lines.
C. A shuttle valve interconnecting the main and emergency systems.

L.8.4.6.5.A.1 L03
A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be detected by
A. hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain line.
B. the presence of hydraulic fluid around the pump mounting pad.
C. evidence of hydraulic fluid combined in the engine oil.

L.8.4.6.6.A.1 L03
If an engine driven hydraulic pump of the correct capacity fails to maintain normal system pressure during the operation of a cowl flap actuating unit, the probable cause is
A. restriction in the pump outlet.
B. a partial restriction in the inport of the selector valve.
C. mechanical interference to the movement of the cowl flap.

L.8.4.6.7.A.1 L03
Before removing the filler cap of a pressurized hydraulic reservoir,
A. relieve the hydraulic system pressure.
B. relieve the air pressure.
C. actuate several components in the system.

L.8.4.6.8.A.1 L03
What happens to the output of a constant displacement hydraulic pump when the hydraulic system pressure regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the reservoir?
A. The output pressure and volume remain the same.
B. The output pressure reduces, but the volume remains the same.
C. The output pressure remains the same, but the volume reduces.

L.8.4.6.9.A.1 L03
Hydraulic system accumulators serve which of the following functions?
1. Dampen pressure surges.
2. Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond the pump's capacity.
3. Store power for limited operation of components if the pump is not operating.
4. Ensure a continuous supply of fluid to the pump.
A. 1, 2, 3.
B. 2, 3.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4.

L.8.4.7.0.A.1 L03
Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an indication
A. that air is entering the pump.
B. of low accumulator preload.
C. that the main system relief valve is sticking open.

L.8.4.7.1.A.1 L03
Quick disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide a means of
A. easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where leaks are common.
B. quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines and eliminate the possibility of contaminates entering the system.
C. quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system.

L.8.4.7.2.A.1 L03
Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids?
A. Silicone rubber.
B. Neoprene rubber.
C. Butyl rubber.

L.8.4.7.3.A.1 L03
A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it
A. produces an unregulated constant pressure.
B. produces a continuous positive pressure.
C. delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.

L.8.4.7.4.A.1 L03
A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to
A. linear motion.
B. rotary motion.
C. angular motion.

L.8.4.7.5.A.1 L03
A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from one side of an actuating cylinder to the other side, under certain conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in the
A. flap overload system.
B. landing gear system.
C. engine cowl flap system.

L.8.4.7.6.A.1 L03
Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of porous paper are normally
A. discarded at regular intervals and replaced with new filtering elements.
B. not approved for use in certificated aircraft.
C. cleaned and reused.

L.8.4.7.7.A.1 L03
A pilot reports that when the hydraulic pump is running, the pressure is normal. However, when the pump is stopped, no hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of a
A. leaking selector valve.
B. low accumulator fluid preload.
C. leaking accumulator air valve.

L.8.4.7.8.A.1 L03
If fluid is added to a nonpressurized reservoir in a constant pressure hydraulic system while the system is pressurized,
A. fluid will spray violently out of the reservoir when the filler neck cap is removed.
B. the fluid level will increase when system pressure is reduced.
C. air will be drawn into the system, when the filler neck cap is removed, resulting in pump chattering and possible damage.

L.8.4.7.9.A.1 L03
In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized with turbine engine compressor bleed air, which unit reduces the air pressure between the engine and reservoir?
A. Air bleed relief valve.
B. Relief valve.
C. Air pressure regulator.

L.8.4.8.0.A.1 L03
What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a hydraulic system?
A. Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation.
B. Prevent hydraulic fluid from foaming.
C. Prevent tank collapse at altitude.

L.8.4.8.1.B.1 L03
One of the main advantages of skydrol is it's
A. wide operating temperature.
B. inability to mix with water.
C. high operating pressure.

L.8.4.8.2.A.1 L03
Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the
A. emergency pump when the fluid supply to the normal system has been depleted.
B. emergency pump at any time it is required.
C. normal system power pump.

L.8.4.8.3.A.1 L03
An emergency supply of fluid is often retained in the main hydraulic system reservoir by the use of a standpipe. The supply line is connected to the
A. inlet of the emergency pump.
B. inlet of the main system pump.
C. inlet of the main hydraulic system.

L.8.4.8.4.A.1 L03
To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator,
A. read it directly from the auxiliary pressure gauge.
B. reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the reading on the accumulator air gauge.
C. observe the first reading on the hydraulic system gauge while operating a component in the system.

L.8.4.8.5.A.1 L03
How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system still has hydraulic pressure?
A. Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins as it goes toward zero.
B. Read it directly from the main system pressure gauge with all actuators inoperative.
C. Build up system pressure with the emergency pump and then read the pressure on a gauge attached to the air side of the accumulator.

L.8.4.8.6.A.1 L03
How many of these seals are used with petroleum base hydraulic fluids?
1. Synthetic rubber.
2. Natural rubber.
3. Neoprene rubber.
A. Two.
B. One.
C. Three.

L.8.4.8.7.A.1 L03
Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at a
A. lower pressure than the system pressure regulator.
B. lower pressure than the system relief valve.
C. higher pressure than the system relief valve.

L.8.4.8.8.A.1 L03
Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by
A. excessive system pressure.
B. air in the system.
C. insufficient system pressure.

L.8.4.8.9.A.1 L03
If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of the accumulator is depressed, it is evidence of
A. a leaking check valve.
B. a ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals.
C. excessive accumulator air pressure.

L.8.4.9.0.A.1 L03
Although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible, they are acceptable in the remainder of a hydraulic tube providing they are less than what percent of the tube diameter?
A. 10.
B. 20.
C. 5.

L.8.4.9.1.A.1 L03
If the hydraulic system pressure is normal while the engine driven pump is running, but there is no pressure after the engine has been shut off, it indicates
A. no air pressure in the accumulator.
B. the system relief valve setting is too high.
C. the pressure regulator is set too high.

L.8.4.9.2.A.1 L03
The purpose of restrictors in hydraulic systems is to
A. allow the flow of fluid in one direction only.
B. control the rate of movement of hydraulically operated mechanisms.
C. lower the operating pressure of selected components.

L.8.4.9.3.A.1 L03
A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic components is
A. restricted orifices.
B. internal leakage in the actuating unit.
C. cold fluid.

L.8.4.9.4.A.1 L03
A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic system having an accumulator usually indicates
A. too low or no preload in the accumulator.
B. too much preload in the accumulator.
C. air in the fluid.

L.8.4.9.5.A.1 L03
Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from being exposed to high pressure or temperature should
A. not be straightened or bent further.
B. not be reinstalled once removed.
C. be immediately replaced.

L.8.4.9.6.A.1 L03
In a typical high pressure pneumatic system, if the moisture separator does not vent accumulated water when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a
A. malfunctioning pressure transmitter.
B. malfunctioning solenoid dump valve.
C. saturated chemical dryer.

M.8.4.9.7.B.1 M01
Which section of a turbine engine provides high pressure bleed air to an air cycle machine for pressurization and air-conditioning?
A. C-D inlet compressor duct.
B. Inlet compressor.
C. Turbine compressor.

M.8.4.9.8.A.1 M01
At which component in an air cycle cooling system does air undergo a pressure and temperature drop?
A. Expansion turbine.
B. Primary heat exchanger.
C. Refrigeration bypass valve.

M.8.4.9.9.A.1 M01
In a freon vapor cycle cooling system, where is cooling air obtained for the condenser?
A. Pressurized cabin air.
B. Turbine engine compressor.
C. Ambient air.

M.8.5.0.0.A.1 M01
What is ventilating air used for on a combustion heater?
A. Provides air required to support the flame.
B. Carries heat to the places where needed.
C. Provides combustion air for ground blower.

M.8.5.0.1.A.1 M01
Turbine engine air used for air conditioning and pressurization is generally called
A. ram air.
B. compressed air.
C. bleed air.

M.8.5.0.2.A.1 M01
In the combustion heater, combustion air system, what prevents too much air from entering the heaters as air pressure increases?
A. Only a differential pressure regulator can be used.
B. Either a combustion air relief valve or a differential pressure regulator.
C. Only a combustion air relief valve can be used.

M.8.5.0.3.A.1 M01
The cabin pressure of an aircraft in flight is maintained at the selected altitude by
A. controlling the air inflow rate.
B. controlling the rate at which air leaves the cabin.
C. inflating door seals and recirculating conditioned cabin air.

M.8.5.0.4.A.1 M01
What controls the operation of the cabin pressure regulator?
A. Cabin altitude.
B. Bleed air pressure.
C. Compression air pressure.

M.8.5.0.5.A.1 M01
The basic air cycle cooling system consists of
A. heaters, coolers, and compressors.
B. a source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.
C. ram air source, compressors, and engine bleeds.

M.8.5.0.6.A.1 M01
The purpose of the dump valve in a pressurized aircraft is to relieve
A. a negative pressure differential.
B. pressure in excess of the maximum differential.
C. all positive pressure from the cabin.

M.8.5.0.7.A.1 M01
What component might possibly be damaged if liquid refrigerant is introduced into the low side of a vapor cycle cooling system when the pressure is too high or the outside air temperature is too low?
A. Compressor.
B. Condenser.
C. Evaporator.

M.8.5.0.8.A.1 M01
How can it be determined that a vapor cycle cooling system is charged with the proper amount of freon?
A. The compressor loads up and RPM decreases.
B. Air bubbles appear in the sight glass.
C. Air bubbles in the sight glass disappear.

M.8.5.0.9.A.1 M01
When charging a vapor cycle cooling system after evacuation, the low pressure gauge fails to come out of a vacuum. What is indicated?
A. The expansion valve failed to close.
B. Blockage in the system.
C. The compressor is not engaging.

M.8.5.1.0.A.1 M01
What component in a vapor cycle cooling system would most likely be at fault if a system would not take a freon charge?
A. Expansion valve.
B. Condenser.
C. Receiver dryer.

M.8.5.1.1.A.1 M01
Frost or ice buildup on a vapor cycle cooling system evaporator would most likely be caused by
A. moisture in the evaporator.
B. the mixing valve sticking closed.
C. inadequate airflow through the evaporator.

M.8.5.1.2.A.1 M01
What test is used to determine the serviceability of an oxygen cylinder?
A. Pressure test with water.
B. Pressure test with nitrogen.
C. Pressure test with manometer.

M.8.5.1.3.A.1 M01
How often should standard weight high pressure oxygen cylinders be hydrostatically tested?
A. Every 4 years.
B. Every 3 years.
C. Every 5 years.

M.8.5.1.4.B.1 M01
To be eligible for recharging, a DOT 3HT oxygen cylinder must have been hydrostatically tested every three years and be retired from service after
A. 15 years or 10 000 filling cycles.
B. 24 years or 4380 filling cycles.
C. 10 years or 5000 filling cycles.

M.8.5.1.5.A.1 M01
What type of oxygen system uses the rebreather bag-type mask?
A. Demand.
B. Diluter demand.
C. Continuous flow.

M.8.5.1.6.B.1 M01
The altitude controller maintains cabin altitude by modulation of the
A. outflow valve.
B. safety valve.
C. safety and outflow valves.

M.8.5.1.7.B.1 M01
Hot compressor bleed air operates the conditioned air system on some turbine aircraft, how is cold air supplied?
A. By the ram cycle cooling unit.
B. By the flow control unit.
C. By the air cycle machine turbine.

M.8.5.1.8.A.1 M01
For use in pressurized aircraft, which is generally the least complicated and requires the least maintenance?
A. High-pressure oxygen systems.
B. Low-pressure oxygen systems.
C. Chemical oxygen generator systems.

M.8.5.1.9.A.1 M01
The main cause of contamination in gaseous oxygen systems is
A. moisture.
B. dust and other airborne particulates.
C. other atmospheric gases.

M.8.5.2.0.A.1 M01
Where does the last stage of cooling in an air cycle air conditioning system occur?
A. Secondary heat exchanger.
B. Refrigeration unit compressor.
C. Expansion turbine.

M.8.5.2.1.A.1 M01
The point at which freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system gives up heat and changes from a gas to a liquid is the
A. expansion valve.
B. evaporator.
C. condenser.

M.8.5.2.2.A.1 M01
The point at which freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system absorbs heat and changes from a liquid to a gas is the
A. condenser.
B. expansion valve.
C. evaporator.

M.8.5.2.3.A.1 M01
How is the cabin pressure of a pressurized aircraft usually controlled?
A. By an automatic outflow valve that dumps all the pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set.
B. By a pressure sensitive valve that controls the output pressure of the pressurization pump.
C. By a pressure sensitive switch that causes the pressurization pump to turn on or off as required.

M.8.5.2.4.A.1 M01
Which is considered a good practice concerning the inspection of heating and exhaust systems of aircraft utilizing a jacket around the engine exhaust as a heat source?
A. Supplement physical inspections with periodic operational carbon monoxide detection tests.
B. All exhaust system components should be removed periodically, and their condition determined by the magnetic particle inspection method.
C. All exhaust system components should be removed and replaced at each 100-hour inspection period.

M.8.5.2.5.C.1 M01
On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the ground is restricted by the
A. main landing gear operated switch.
B. negative pressure-relief valve.
C. cabin pressure regulator.

M.8.5.2.6.A.1 M01
The cabin pressure control setting has a direct influence upon the
A. outflow valve opening.
B. pneumatic system pressure.
C. inflow valve opening.

M.8.5.2.7.A.1 M01
The function of the evaporator in a freon cooling system is to
A. lower the temperature of the cabin air.
B. transfer heat from the freon gas to ambient air.
C. liquefy freon in the line between the compressor and the condenser.

M.8.5.2.8.A.1 M01
What is the purpose of a mixing valve in a compressor bleed air air-conditioning system?
A. Distribute conditioned air evenly to all parts of the cabin.
B. Combine ram air with conditioned air.
C. Control the supply of hot, cool, and cold air.

M.8.5.2.9.A.1 M01
What component of a pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than airplane altitude?
A. Negative pressure relief valve.
B. Cabin rate of descent control.
C. Positive pressure relief valve.

M.8.5.3.0.A.1 M01
If the liquid level gauge in a vapor cycle cooling system indicates a low freon charge, the system should
A. be operated and a pressure check performed.
B. not be operated until freon and oil have been added.
C. be operated for a period of time to reach a stable condition and then the freon level rechecked.

M.8.5.3.1.A.1 M01
If the cabin rate of climb is too great, the control should be adjusted to cause the
A. cabin compressor speed to decrease.
B. outflow valve to close slower.
C. outflow valve to close faster.

M.8.5.3.2.A.1 M01
The position of the thermostatic expansion valve in a vapor cycle cooling system is determined by temperature and pressure of the
A. freon entering the evaporator.
B. freon in the outlet of the evaporator.
C. air in the outlet of the condenser.

M.8.5.3.3.A.1 M01
The function of the condenser in a freon cooling system is to
A. transfer heat from the freon gas to ambient air.
B. change liquid freon into a gas before it enters the compressor.
C. transfer heat from the cabin air to the liquid freon.

M.8.5.3.4.A.1 M01
The function of an expansion valve in a freon cooling system is to act as a metering device and to
A. reduce the pressure of the gaseous freon.
B. increase the pressure of the liquid freon.
C. reduce the pressure of the liquid freon.

M.8.5.3.5.A.1 M01
Which prevents a sudden loss of pressurization in the event that there is a loss of the pressurization source?
A. Firewall shutoff valve.
B. Cabin pressure outflow valve.
C. Delivery air duct check valve.

M.8.5.3.6.A.1 M01
When servicing an air conditioning system that has lost all of its freon, it is necessary to
A. check oil and add as necessary, evacuate the system, relieve vacuum, and add freon.
B. check oil and add as necessary, evacuate the system, and add freon.
C. check oil and add as necessary, and add freon.

M.8.5.3.7.A.1 M01
The primary function of the cabin pressurization system outflow valve is to
A. maintain the same cabin air pressure at all altitudes.
B. maintain the desired cabin pressure.
C. provide protection against overpressurization.

M.8.5.3.8.A.1 M01
One purpose of a jet pump in a pressurization and air conditioning system is to
A. produce a high pressure for operation of the outflow valve.
B. provide for augmentation of airflow in some areas of the aircraft.
C. assist in the circulation of freon.

M.8.5.3.9.A.1 M01
After cleaning or replacing the filtering element in a combustion heater fuel system, the system should be pressurized and
A. a sample of fuel taken downstream from the filter to ensure proper operation of the new filtering element.
B. the fuel filter bypass valve reset to the filter position.
C. all connections checked for leaks.

M.8.5.4.0.A.1 M01
The operation of an aircraft combustion heater is usually controlled by a thermostat circuit which
A. meters the amount of fuel continuously entering the heater and therefore regulates the heater's BTU output.
B. alternately turns the fuel on and off, a process known as cycling.
C. regulates the voltage applied to the heater's ignition transformer.

M.8.5.4.1.A.1 M01
The air cycle cooling system produces cold air by
A. passing air through cooling coils that contain a refrigerant.
B. extracting heat energy across a compressor.
C. extracting heat energy across an expansion turbine.

M.8.5.4.2.A.1 M01
(Refer to figure 13.) Determine what unit is located immediately downstream of the expansion valve in a freon refrigeration system.
A. Condenser.
B. Compressor.
C. Evaporator coils.

M.8.5.4.3.A.1 M01
When checking a freon system, a steady stream of bubbles in the sight gauge indicates the charge is
A. correct.
B. high.
C. low.

M.8.5.4.4.B.1 M01
An aircraft pressurization cycle is normally considered to be
A. one take off and one landing.
B. when the fuselage reaches its maximum pressure differential one time.
C. one complete series of events or operations that recur regularly.

M.8.5.4.5.A.1 M01
Which best describes cabin differential pressure?
A. Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure.
B. Difference between cabin pressure controller setting and actual cabin pressure.
C. Difference between cabin flight altitude pressure and Mean Sea Level pressure.

M.8.5.4.6.B.1 M01
Composite oxygen bottles that conform to DOT-E-8162 have a service life of
A. 10 years or 5000 filling cycles whichever occurs first.
B. 5 yeas or 5000 filling cycles whichever occurs first.
C. 15 years or 10 000 filling cycles whichever occurs first.

M.8.5.4.7.A.1 M01
The cabin pressurization modes of operation are
A. ambient, unpressurized, and isobaric.
B. differential, unpressurized, and isobaric.
C. isobaric, differential, and maximum differential.

M.8.5.4.8.A.1 M01
(1) Usually bleed air from a gas-turbine engine compressor can be safely used for cabin pressurization.
(2) Independent cabin condition air machines (air cycle machine) can be powered by bleed air from an aircraft turbine engine compressor.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

M.8.5.4.9.A.1 M01
A pressurization controller uses
A. barometric pressure, cabin altitude, and cabin rate of change.
B. bleed air pressure, outside air temperature, and cabin rate of climb.
C. cabin rate of climb, bleed air volume, and cabin pressure.

M.8.5.5.0.A.1 M01
What unit in a vapor cycle cooling system serves as a reservoir for the refrigerant?
A. Evaporator.
B. Receiver dryer.
C. Condenser.

M.8.5.5.1.A.1 M01
What is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the condenser of a vapor cycle cooling system?
A. Low pressure liquid.
B. High pressure liquid.
C. High pressure vapor.

M.8.5.5.2.A.1 M01
What is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the evaporator of a vapor cycle cooling system?
A. High pressure vapor.
B. Low pressure liquid.
C. High pressure liquid.

M.8.5.5.3.A.1 M01
The evacuation of a vapor-cycle cooling system removes any water that may be present by
A. raising the boiling point of the water and drawing out the vapor.
B. drawing out the liquid.
C. lowering the boiling point of the water and drawing out the vapor.

M.8.5.5.4.A.1 M01
What is the condition of the refrigerant as it leaves the evaporator of a vapor cycle cooling system?
A. Low pressure liquid.
B. High pressure vapor.
C. Low pressure vapor.

M.8.5.5.5.A.1 M01
What is the condition of the refrigerant as it leaves the condenser of a vapor cycle cooling system?
A. Low pressure liquid.
B. High pressure vapor.
C. High pressure liquid.

M.8.5.5.6.A.1 M01
In what position should the bottle be placed when adding liquid freon to a vapor cycle cooling system?
A. Vertical with the outlet at the bottom.
B. Horizontal with the outlet to the side.
C. Vertical with the outlet at the top.

M.8.5.5.7.A.1 M01
When purging a freon air conditioning system, it is important to release the charge at a slow rate. What is the reason for the slow rate discharge?
A. Prevent excessive loss of refrigerant oil.
B. Prevent condensation from forming and contaminating the system.
C. Prevent the large amount of freon from contaminating the surrounding atmosphere.

M.8.5.5.8.A.1 M01
When a vapor cycle cooling system is not in operation, what is an indication that the system is leaking freon?
A. An ozone-like odor in the immediate area.
B. Bubbles in the sight glass.
C. Oil seepage.

M.8.5.5.9.A.1 M01
In an operating vapor cycle cooling system, if the two lines connected to the expansion valve are essentially the same temperature, what does this indicate?
A. The expansion valve is not metering freon properly.
B. The compressor is pumping too much refrigerant.
C. The system is functioning normally.

M.8.5.6.0.A.1 M01
The purpose of a subcooler in a vapor cycle cooling system is to
A. aid in quick cooling a hot aircraft interior.
B. augment the cooling capacity during periods of peak demand.
C. cool the freon to prevent premature vaporization.

M.8.5.6.1.A.1 M01
(1) A small amount of water in a vapor cycle cooling system can freeze in the receiver-dryer and stop the entire system operation.
(2) Water in a vapor cycle cooling system will react with refrigerant to form hydrochloric acid which is highly corrosive to the metal in the system.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

M.8.5.6.2.A.1 M01
When Refrigerant 12 is passed over an open flame, it
A. is broken down into its basic chemical elements.
B. changes to methane gas.
C. changes to phosgene gas.

M.8.5.6.3.A.1 M01
What type of oil is suitable for use in vapor-cycle cooling system?
A. Low viscosity engine oil with the inability to absorb water.
B. Highly refined synthetic oil, free from impurities with special water absorbing additives.
C. Special high grade refrigeration oil.

M.8.5.6.4.A.1 M02
When an aircraft's oxygen system has developed a leak, the lines and fittings should be
A. removed and replaced.
B. bubble tested with a special soap solution manufactured specifically for this purpose.
C. inspected using a special oxygen system dye penetrant.

M.8.5.6.5.A.1 M02
If oxygen bottle pressure is allowed to drop below a specified minimum, it may cause
A. moisture to collect in the bottle.
B. the pressure reducer to fail.
C. the automatic altitude control valve to open.

M.8.5.6.6.A.1 M02
What controls the amount of oxygen delivered to a mask in a continuous flow oxygen system?
A. Calibrated orifice.
B. Pilot's regulator.
C. Pressure reducing valve.

M.8.5.6.7.A.1 M02
In the diluter demand oxygen regulator, when does the demand valve operate?
A. When the user breathes.
B. When the user demands 100 percent oxygen.
C. When the diluter control is set at normal.

M.8.5.6.8.A.1 M02
The primary difference between aviation breathing oxygen and most other types of commercially available compressed oxygen is that
A. aviation breathing oxygen has had all the water vapor removed.
B. the other types are usually somewhat less than 99.5 percent pure oxygen.
C. aviation breathing oxygen has a higher percentage of water vapor to help prevent drying of a person's breathing passages and possible dehydration.

M.8.5.6.9.A.1 M02
What is used in some oxygen systems to change high cylinder pressure to low system pressure?
A. Pressure reducer valve.
B. Calibrated fixed orifice.
C. Diluter demand regulator.

M.8.5.7.0.A.1 M02
In a high-pressure oxygen system, if the pressure reducer fails, what prevents high pressure oxygen from entering the system downstream?
A. Manifold control valve.
B. Check valve.
C. Pressure relief valve.

M.8.5.7.1.A.1 M02
High pressure cylinders containing oxygen for aviation use can be identified by their
A. green color and the words ``AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN'' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
B. yellow color and the words ``AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN'' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
C. green color and the words ``BREATHING OXYGEN'' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.

M.8.5.7.2.B.1 M02
(Refer to figure 14.) One hour after an oxygen system was charged for a leakage check, the oxygen pressure gauge read 460 PSI at 63 캟; 6 hours later the temperature was 51 캟. (A 5 PSI change is the maximum allowable in a 6-hour period.) What pressure gauge readings would be acceptable to remain within the allowable limits?
A. 445 to 450 PSI.
B. 446 to 450 PSI.
C. 455 to 460 PSI.

M.8.5.7.3.B.1 M02
An aircraft oxygen bottle may be considered airworthy if it has been hydrostatically tested and identified
A. with the DOT number and manufacturer stamped on the cylinder near the neck.
B. with the DOT number, serial number and manufacturer stamped on the cylinder near the neck.
C. with the test date, DOT number and serial number stamped on the cylinder near the neck.

M.8.5.7.4.A.1 M02
In a gaseous oxygen system, which of the following are vented to blow out plugs in the fuselage skin?
A. Filler shutoff valves.
B. Pressure relief valves.
C. Pressure reducer valves.

M.8.5.7.5.A.1 M02
The purpose of pressurizing aircraft cabins is to
(1) create the proper environment for prevention of hypoxia.
(2) permit operation at high altitudes.
Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. only No. 1 is true.

M.8.5.7.6.A.1 M02
(1) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is at least 99.5 percent pure and is practically water free.
(2) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is 99.5 percent pure and is hospital quality.
Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. only No. 1 is true.
C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

M.8.5.7.7.A.1 M02
Oxygen systems in unpressurized aircraft are generally of the
A. pressure demand type only.
B. continuous flow and pressure demand types.
C. portable bottle type only.

M.8.5.7.8.A.1 M02
The purpose of the airflow metering aneroid assembly found in oxygen diluter demand regulators is to
A. automatically put the regulator in emergency position if the demand valve diaphragm ruptures.
B. regulate airflow in relation to cabin altitude when in diluter demand position.
C. regulate airflow in relation to oxygen flow when operating in emergency or diluter demand positions.

M.8.5.7.9.A.1 M02
If a high pressure oxygen cylinder is to be installed in an airplane, it must meet the specifications of the
A. aircraft manufacturer or the cylinder manufacturer.
B. National Transportation Safety Board or the Standards of Compressed Gas Cylinders.
C. Department of Transportation.

M.8.5.8.0.A.1 M02
Before a high pressure oxygen cylinder is serviced, it must be the correct type and have been
A. hydrostatically tested within the proper time interval.
B. approved by the National Transportation Safety Board.
C. inspected by a certificated airframe mechanic.

M.8.5.8.1.A.1 M02
A contaminated oxygen system is normally purged with
A. compressed air.
B. nitrogen.
C. oxygen.

M.8.5.8.2.A.1 M02
How should you determine the amount of oxygen in a portable, high pressure cylinder?
A. Read the pressure gauge mounted on the cylinder.
B. Measure the pressure at the mask.
C. Weigh the cylinder and its contents.

M.8.5.8.3.A.1 M02
What may be used as a lubricant on oxygen system tapered pipe thread connections?
A. Glycerine.
B. Teflon tape.
C. Silicone dielectric compound.

M.8.5.8.4.B.1 M02
On transport category aircraft what might be an indication of an over pressure event of the aircraft oxygen system?
A. The green thermal expansion disk in the cockpit missing.
B. The green thermal expansion disk on the oxygen regulator missing.
C. The green thermal expansion disk missing.

M.8.5.8.5.B.1 M02
Which of the following are characteristic of a chemical or solid state oxygen system?
1. An adjustable oxygen release rate.
2. A volume storage capacity about three times that of compressed oxygen.
3. The system generators are inert below 400 캟 even under severe impact.
4. A distribution and regulating system similar to gaseous oxygen systems.
A. 2 & 3.
B. 1 & 2.
C. 3 & 4.

N.8.5.8.6.B.1 N01
An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date the compass correction card when
A. the compass is serviced.
B. equipment is added that could effect compass deviation.
C. an annual inspection is accomplished on the aircraft.

N.8.5.8.7.A.1 N01
The operating mechanism of most hydraulic pressure gauges is
A. a Bourdon tube.
B. an evacuated bellows filled with an inert gas to which suitable arms, levers, and gears are attached.
C. an airtight diaphragm.

N.8.5.8.8.A.1 N01
What is the fixed line mark attached to the compass bowl of a magnetic compass called?
A. Reference line.
B. Lubber line.
C. Reeder line.

N.8.5.8.9.B.1 N01
(1) Aircraft instruments are color-coded to direct attention to operational ranges and limitations.
(2) Aircraft instruments range markings are not specified by Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations but are standardized by aircraft manufacturers.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

N.8.5.9.0.A.1 N01
When swinging a magnetic compass, the compensators are adjusted to correct for
A. magnetic variations.
B. compass card oscillations.
C. magnetic influence deviation.

N.8.5.9.1.A.1 N01
What will be the result if the instrument static pressure line becomes disconnected inside a pressurized cabin during cruising flight?
A. The altimeter will read low and the airspeed indicator will read high.
B. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.
C. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read high.

N.8.5.9.2.A.1 N01
The maximum deviation (during level flight) permitted in a compensated magnetic direction indicator installed on an aircraft certificated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23 is
A. 10.
B. 6.
C. 8.

N.8.5.9.3.A.1 N01
Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to
A. dampen the oscillation of the float.
B. reduce deviation errors.
C. retard precession of the float.

N.8.5.9.4.A.1 N01
Instrument static system leakage can be detected by observing the rate of change in indication of the
A. airspeed indicator after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed equivalent airspeed to be indicated.
B. altimeter after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed equivalent altitude to be indicated.
C. altimeter after pressure has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed equivalent altitude to be indicated.

N.8.5.9.5.A.1 N01
The maximum altitude loss permitted during an unpressurized aircraft instrument static pressure system integrity check is
A. 200 feet in 1 minute.
B. 100 feet in 1 minute.
C. 50 feet in 1 minute.

N.8.5.9.6.A.1 N01
Which statement regarding an aircraft instrument vacuum system is true?
A. If the air inlet to each vacuum instrument is connected to a common atmospheric pressure manifold, the system generally will be equipped with individual instrument filters only.
B. Vacuum systems are generally more effective at high altitudes than positive pressure systems.
C. Dry type vacuum pumps with carbon vanes are very susceptible to damage from solid airborne particles and must take in only filtered air.

N.8.5.9.7.A.1 N01
When an aircraft altimeter is set at 29.92" Hg on the ground, the altimeter will read
A. field elevation.
B. density altitude.
C. pressure altitude.

N.8.5.9.8.A.1 N01
Which of the following instrument discrepancies could be corrected by an aviation mechanic?
1. Red line missing.
2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not adjust.
8. Fogged.
A. 1, 4, 6.
B. 1, 4, 5, 6.
C. 3, 4, 5, 6.

N.8.5.9.9.A.1 N01
Which of the following instrument discrepancies would require replacement of the instrument?
1. Red line missing.
2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not zero out.
8. Fogged.
A. 1, 3, 5, 8.
B. 1, 4, 6, 7.
C. 2, 3, 7, 8.

N.8.6.0.0.A.1 N01
Which of the following instrument conditions is acceptable and would not require correction?
1. Red line missing.
2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not zero out.
8. Fogged.
A. None.
B. 1.
C. 5.

N.8.6.0.1.A.1 N01
A barometric altimeter indicates pressure altitude when the barometric scale is set at
A. field elevation.
B. 14.7" Hg.
C. 29.92" Hg.

N.8.6.0.2.A.1 N01
A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate
1. pressure.
2. temperature.
3. position.
A. 1.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1 and 2.

N.8.6.0.3.B.1 N01
A turn coordinator instrument indicates
A. both roll and yaw.
B. the need for corrections in pitch and bank.
C. the longitudinal attitude of the aircraft during climb and descent.

N.8.6.0.4.A.1 N01
Thermocouple leads
A. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.
B. may be repaired using solderless connectors.
C. may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator.

N.8.6.0.5.A.1 N01
A synchro transmitter is connected to a synchro receiver
A. electrically with wires.
B. mechanically through linkage.
C. electromagnetically without wires.

N.8.6.0.6.A.1 N01
The operation of an angle of attack indicating system is based on detection of differential pressure at a point where the airstream flows in a direction
A. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
B. parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft.
C. not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft.

N.8.6.0.7.A.1 N01
Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are measured by using
A. iron/constantan thermocouples.
B. chromel/alumel thermocouples.
C. ratiometer electrical resistance thermometers.

N.8.6.0.8.A.1 N01
Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data
A. mechanically.
B. utilizing fluid power.
C. electrically.

N.8.6.0.9.A.1 N01
Which of the following causes of aircraft magnetic compass inaccuracies may be compensated for by mechanics?
A. Variation.
B. Magnetic compass current.
C. Deviation.

N.8.6.1.0.A.1 N01
Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument?
1. A certified mechanic with an airframe rating.
2. A certificated repairman with an airframe rating.
3. A certificated repair station approved for that class instrument.
4. A certificated airframe repair station.
A. 3 and 4.
B. 3.
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4.

N.8.6.1.1.A.1 N01
What does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not operating?
A. Zero pressure.
B. The differential between the manifold pressure and the atmospheric pressure.
C. The existing atmospheric pressure.

N.8.6.1.2.A.1 N01
The requirements for testing and inspection of instrument static systems required by Section 91.411 are contained in
A. AC 43.13-1A.
B. Type Certificate Data Sheets.
C. Part 43, appendix E.

N.8.6.1.3.A.1 N01
Which condition would be most likely to cause excessive vacuum in a vacuum system?
A. Vacuum relief valve improperly adjusted.
B. Vacuum pump overspeed.
C. Vacuum relief valve spring weak.

N.8.6.1.4.A.1 N01
Data transmitted between components in an EFIS are converted into
A. digital signals.
B. analog signals.
C. carrier wave signals.

N.8.6.1.5.A.1 N01
The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to
A. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation.
B. display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments.
C. receive and process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display.

N.8.6.1.6.A.1 N01
The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an EFIS is to
A. receive and process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display.
B. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation.
C. display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments.

N.8.6.1.7.A.1 N01
The function of a display controller in an EFIS is to
A. display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments.
B. receive and process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display.
C. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation.

N.8.6.1.8.A.1 N01
A radar altimeter determines altitude by
A. means of transponder interrogation.
B. receiving signals transmitted from ground radar stations.
C. transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal.

N.8.6.1.9.A.1 N01
A radar altimeter indicates
A. altitude above ground level.
B. altitude above sea level.
C. flight level (pressure) altitude.

N.8.6.2.0.A.1 N01
Resistance-type temperature indicators using Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuits may be used to indicate the temperatures of which of the following?
1. Free air.
2. Exhaust gas temperature.
3. Carburetor air.
4. Coolant (engine).
5. Oil temperature.
6. Cylinder head temperature.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.
B. 1, 2, 3, and 6.
C. 1, 3, 4, and 5.

N.8.6.2.1.A.1 N01
When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are displayed on an HSI, the indication is
A. that function is operating.
B. that function is inoperative.
C. to call attention to deviation from the desired setting, or flight path, or heading, etc.

N.8.6.2.2.B.1 N02
Instrument panel shock mounts absorb
A. low frequency, high-amplitude shocks.
B. high G shock loads imposed by turbulent air.
C. high energy impact shocks caused by hard landings.

N.8.6.2.3.A.1 N02
Which procedure should you use if you find a vacuum operated instrument glass loose?
A. Mark the case and glass with a slippage mark.
B. Replace the glass.
C. Install another instrument.

N.8.6.2.4.A.1 N02
Which instruments are connected to an aircraft's pitot static system?
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
B. 1, 2, and 4.
C. 1, 3, and 5.

N.8.6.2.5.A.1 N02
How many of the following instruments will normally have range markings?
1. Airspeed indicator.
2. Altimeter.
3. Cylinder head temperature gauge.
A. Two.
B. One.
C. Three.

N.8.6.2.6.A.1 N02
How would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the best rate of climb speed (one engine inoperative)?
A. A green arc.
B. A blue radial line.
C. A red radial line.

N.8.6.2.7.A.1 N02
The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge indicates
A. the instrument is not calibrated.
B. a low, unsafe temperature range.
C. the desirable temperature range.

N.8.6.2.8.B.1 N02
What must be done to an instrument panel that is supported by shock mounts?
A. Bonding straps must be installed across the instrument mounts as a current path.
B. The instrument mounts must be grounded to the aircraft structure as a current path.
C. The instrument mounts must be tightened to the specified torque required by the maintenance manual.

N.8.6.2.9.A.1 N02
What marking color is used to indicate if a cover glass has slipped?
A. Yellow.
B. White.
C. Red.

N.8.6.3.0.A.1 N02
Aircraft instruments should be marked and graduated in accordance with
A. both the aircraft and engine manufacturers' specifications.
B. the instrument manufacturer's specifications.
C. the specific aircraft maintenance or flight manual.

N.8.6.3.1.A.1 N02
Aircraft instrument panels are generally shock mounted to absorb
A. low frequency, high amplitude shocks.
B. high frequency, high amplitude shocks.
C. all vibration.

N.8.6.3.2.A.1 N02
The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on the
A. instrument manufacturer.
B. design of the instrument panel.
C. design of the instrument case.

N.8.6.3.3.A.1 N02
How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in an instrument panel?
A. By four machine screws which extend through the instrument panel.
B. By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the front of the instrument panel.
C. By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the instrument panel.

N.8.6.3.4.C.1 N02
Cases for electrically operated instruments are made of
A. Iron or steel cases.
B. Plastic or composite cases.
C. Aluminum or bakelite cases.

N.8.6.3.5.A.1 N02
When installing an instrument in an aircraft, who is responsible for making sure it is properly marked?
A. The instrument manufacturer.
B. The aircraft owner.
C. The instrument installer.

N.8.6.3.6.A.1 N02
Where may a person look for the information necessary to determine the required markings on an engine instrument?
1. Engine manufacturer's specifications.
2. Aircraft flight manual.
3. Instrument manufacturer's specifications.
4. Aircraft maintenance manual.
A. 2 or 4.
B. 2 or 3.
C. 1 or 4.

N.8.6.3.7.A.1 N02
A certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings may
A. perform minor repairs to aircraft instruments.
B. not perform repairs to aircraft instruments.
C. perform minor repairs and minor alterations to aircraft instruments.

N.8.6.3.8.A.1 N02
The red radial lines on the face of an engine oil pressure gauge indicates
A. minimum engine safe RPM operating range.
B. minimum precautionary safe operating range.
C. minimum and/ or maximum safe operating limits.

N.8.6.3.9.A.1 N02
A certificated mechanic may perform
A. minor repairs to instruments.
B. instrument overhaul.
C. 100-hour inspections of instruments.

N.8.6.4.0.A.1 N02
An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the aircraft structure to
A. act as a restraint strap.
B. provide current return paths.
C. aid in the panel installation.

N.8.6.4.1.A.1 N02
How many of the following are controlled by gyroscopes?
1. Attitude indicator.
2. Heading indicator.
3. Turn needle of the turn and slip indicator.
A. Three.
B. One.
C. Two.

N.8.6.4.2.A.1 N02
The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to
A. represent the wings of the aircraft.
B. represent the nose of the aircraft.
C. align the instrument glass in the case.

N.8.6.4.3.A.1 N02
Which instruments are connected to an aircraft's static pressure system only?
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.
A. 2 and 4.
B. 1 and 3.
C. 2, 4, and 5.

N.8.6.4.4.A.1 N02
When an unpressurized aircraft's static pressure system is leak checked to comply with the requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-static system tester?
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.
A. 2 or 4.
B. 1 or 5.
C. 3.

N.8.6.4.5.A.1 N02
If a static pressure system check reveals excessive leakage, the leak(s) may be located by
A. pressurizing the system and adding leak detection dye.
B. isolating portions of the line and testing each portion systematically, starting at the instrument connections.
C. removing and visually inspecting the line segments.

N.8.6.4.6.A.1 N02
When performing the static system leakage check required by Section 91.411, the technician utilizes
A. static pressure.
B. negative pressure.
C. positive pressure.

O.8.6.4.7.A.1 O01
What is the primary purpose of an autopilot?
A. To fly a more precise course for the pilot.
B. To obtain the navigational aid necessary for extended overwater flights.
C. To relieve the pilot of control of the aircraft during long periods of flight.

O.8.6.4.8.A.1 O01
Which of the following provides manual maneuverability of the aircraft while the autopilot is engaged?
A. Directional gyro indicator.
B. Servo amplifier.
C. Flight controller.

O.8.6.4.9.A.1 O01
In an autopilot, which signal nullifies the input signal to the ailerons?
A. Course signal.
B. Followup signal.
C. Displacement signal.

O.8.6.5.0.A.1 O01
In which control element of an autopilot system is an attitude indicator?
A. Sensing.
B. Command.
C. Input.

O.8.6.5.1.A.1 O01
What is the operating principle of the sensing device used in an autopilot system?
A. The rate of change of motion between the gyro gimbal rings and the aircraft.
B. The reaction of the force 90?away from the applied force in the direction of gyro rotation.
C. The relative motion between a gyro and its supporting system.

O.8.6.5.2.B.1 O01
What will occur if an aircraft attitude is changed by its autopilot system in order to correct for an error and the involved control surfaces are returned to streamline by the time the aircraft has reached its correct position?
A. Normal operation.
B. Overshoot and oscillation.
C. Undershoot and oscillation.

O.8.6.5.3.A.1 O01
What component of an autopilot system applies torque to the control surfaces of an aircraft?
A. Controller.
B. Gyro.
C. Servo.

O.8.6.5.4.A.1 O01
What is the main purpose of a servo in an autopilot system?
A. Correct for displacement of the aircraft about its axis.
B. Move the control surface as commanded.
C. Change mechanical energy to electrical energy.

O.8.6.5.5.A.1 O01
Which channel of an autopilot detects changes in pitch attitude of an aircraft?
A. Aileron.
B. Elevator.
C. Rudder.

O.8.6.5.6.A.1 O01
The elevator channel of an autopilot controls the aircraft about which axis of rotation?
A. Lateral.
B. Roll.
C. Longitudinal.

O.8.6.5.7.A.1 O01
What component is the sensing device in an electromechanical autopilot system?
A. Gyro.
B. Servo.
C. Controller.

O.8.6.5.8.A.1 O01
A fully integrated autopilot controls the aircraft around how many axes?
A. Four.
B. Two.
C. Three.

O.8.6.5.9.A.1 O01
Dutch roll, a combination yawing and rolling oscillation that affects many sweptwing aircraft, is counteracted with
A. a yaw damper system.
B. an aileron damper system.
C. a flight director system.

O.8.6.6.0.A.1 O01
When operationally checking an autopilot system on the ground, after the aircraft's main power has been switched on, the autopilot should be engaged
A. only after the gyros come up to speed and the amplifier warms up.
B. for only a few minutes at a time.
C. whenever the operator desires.

O.8.6.6.1.A.1 O02
Installed radio equipment is protected from damage due to jolts and vibration by
A. shock mounts.
B. spring and/or viscous damper mounted racks.
C. rubber or foam cushioning material between circuit chassis and case.

O.8.6.6.2.A.1 O02
(1) Use solder to attach bonding jumpers on radio equipment.
(2) Radio equipment is bonded to the aircraft in order to provide a low impedance ground and to minimize radio interference from static electrical charges.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 2 is true.
B. only No. 1 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

O.8.6.6.3.B.1 O02
When must the radio station license be displayed in an aircraft equipped with a two-way radio?
A. When the aircraft is certified for IFR flight.
B. When the aircraft is operated outside the U.S..
C. When the aircraft is returned to service.

O.8.6.6.4.A.1 O02
Which of the following issues the license required to operate an aircraft radio transmitter?
A. Federal Communications Commission.
B. National Transportation Safety Board.
C. Federal Aviation Administration.

O.8.6.6.5.A.1 O02
Part of the ADF system used on aircraft includes
A. sense and loop antennas.
B. RMI indicator antenna.
C. marker beacon antenna.

O.8.6.6.6.A.1 O02
When installing coaxial cable, it should be secured firmly along its entire length
A. wherever the cable sags.
B. at 1-foot intervals.
C. at 2-foot intervals.

O.8.6.6.7.B.1 O02
When must the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery be replaced (other than reading the replacement date)?
A. When the transmitter has been tested more than ten times.
B. When the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour.
C. Must be replaced annually or if the five G switch has been activated.

O.8.6.6.8.A.1 O02
An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery must be capable of furnishing power for signal transmission for at least
A. 48 hours.
B. 36 hours.
C. 72 hours.

O.8.6.6.9.A.1 O02
The preferred location of an ELT is
A. where it is readily accessible to the pilot or a member of the flightcrew while the aircraft is in flight.
B. as far aft as possible, but forward of the vertical fin.
C. as far aft as possible.

O.8.6.7.0.A.1 O02
An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is normally activated by an inertial switch or equivalent mechanism if subjected to a force of a prescribed intensity and duration. It must activate when the force is applied
A. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
B. in any direction relative to the aircraft axes.
C. parallel to the vertical axis of the aircraft.

O.8.6.7.1.A.1 O02
How may the battery replacement date be verified for an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)?
A. By activating the transmitter and measuring the signal strength.
B. By removing the batteries and testing them under a measured load to determine if 50 percent of the useful life remains.
C. By observing the battery replacement date marked on the outside of the transmitter.

O.8.6.7.2.A.1 O02
How may the operation of an installed emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be verified during aircraft inspection?
A. By moving the deactivating switch from the DISARM position to the ARM position, while monitoring the civil emergency frequency with a communications receiver at five minutes after the hour.
B. By tuning a communications receiver to the civil emergency frequency, and activating the ELT momentarily within five minutes after the hour.
C. By activating the 5 g switch and turning the unit on at five minutes after the hour.

O.8.6.7.3.A.1 O02
Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at
A. low current levels.
B. high voltage level.
C. high current levels.

O.8.6.7.4.A.1 O02
Long Range Navigation (LORAN) systems determine aircraft location by
A. measuring the inertial forces acting on the aircraft.
B. means of pulsed signals transmitted from ground stations.
C. means of signals transmitted to and from navigation satellites.

O.8.6.7.5.B.1 O02
An aircraft antenna installation must be grounded
A. to the airframe.
B. to the radio rack.
C. to the engine.

O.8.6.7.6.A.1 O02
VHF radio signals are commonly used in
A. both VOR navigation and ATC communications.
B. ATC communications.
C. VOR navigation.

O.8.6.7.7.A.1 O02
On modern large aircraft, what electronic device typically monitors flight parameters and performs autopilot functions?
A. Control/display unit.
B. Transponder.
C. Flight management computer.

O.8.6.7.8.A.1 O02
In the landing configuration GPWS typically monitors the radio (radar) altimeter; air data computer; instrument landing system, and
A. aileron, rudder, and elevator positions.
B. landing gear and flap positions.
C. spoiler, slat, and stabilizer positions.

O.8.6.7.9.A.1 O02
In general, the purpose of an aircraft transponder is to
A. continually transmit heading, speed, and rate of climb/decent etc. information to ATC.
B. monitor aircraft speed, heading, altitude, and attitude whenever the autopilot system is engaged.
C. receive an interrogation signal from a ground station and automatically send a reply back.

O.8.6.8.0.A.1 O03
When an antenna is installed, it should be fastened
A. to the primary structure at the approximate intersection of the three aircraft axes.
B. with a reinforcing doubler on each side of the aircraft skin.
C. so that loads imposed are transmitted to the aircraft structure.

O.8.6.8.1.A.1 O03
After an automatic direction finding antenna has been installed, the
A. loop must be calibrated.
B. antenna must be grounded.
C. transceiver must be compensated.

O.8.6.8.2.A.1 O03
Doublers are used when antennas are installed to
A. prevent oil canning of the skin.
B. eliminate antenna vibration.
C. reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin.

O.8.6.8.3.A.1 O03
One antenna can be used for the radio range and standard broadcast bands in light aircraft because the
A. antenna is omnidirectional.
B. antenna length may be electronically adjusted.
C. two ranges are close together.

O.8.6.8.4.A.1 O03
What characteristics of the installation of a rigid antenna on a vertical stabilizer should be eval‎uated?
A. Polarization and impedance.
B. Flutter and vibration.
C. Impedance and interference.

O.8.6.8.5.A.1 O03
A gasket or sealant is used between the antenna mast and fuselage skin
A. for aircraft pressurization only.
B. to prevent the entry of moisture.
C. to prevent abrasion between the antenna mast and fuselage skin.

O.8.6.8.6.A.1 O03
The preferred location of a VOR antenna on light aircraft is on
A. top of the cabin with the apex of the V pointing forward.
B. top of the vertical stabilizer.
C. the bottom of the fuselage and as far forward as possible.

O.8.6.8.7.A.1 O03
The purpose of a localizer is to
A. set the airplane on the proper approach angle to the runway.
B. indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of the runway.
C. align the airplane with the center of the runway.

O.8.6.8.8.A.1 O03
(Refer to figure 15.) What is the approximate drag load on an antenna with a frontal area of .125 square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 225 MPH?
A. 2.080 pounds.
B. 2.069 pounds.
C. 2.073 pounds.

O.8.6.8.9.A.1 O03
(Refer to figure 15.) What is the approximate drag load on an antenna with a frontal area of .137 square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 275 MPH?
A. 3.592 pounds.
B. 3.387 pounds.
C. 3.741 pounds.

O.8.6.9.0.A.1 O03
A DME antenna should be located in a position on the aircraft that will
A. permit interruptions in DME operation.
B. not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is banked.
C. eliminate the possibility of the DME locking on a station.

O.8.6.9.1.A.1 O03
When bending coaxial cable, the bend radius should be at least
A. 10 times the diameter of the cable.
B. 15 times the diameter of the cable.
C. 20 times the diameter of the cable.

O.8.6.9.2.A.1 O03
When installing a DME antenna, it should be aligned with the
A. centerline on the airplane.
B. angle of incidence.
C. null position.

O.8.6.9.3.A.1 O03
(Refer to figure 16.) Which of the antennas shown is a typical DME antenna?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 4.

O.8.6.9.4.A.1 O03
(Refer to figure 16.) Which of the antennas shown is a typical glideslope antenna?
A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 4.

O.8.6.9.5.A.1 O03
The addition of avionics and associated antenna systems forward of the CG limit will affect
A. CG limits and useful load.
B. useful load and maximum gross weight.
C. empty weight and useful load.

O.8.6.9.6.A.1 O03
How much clearance from the seat bottom is required when installing radio equipment under a seat?
A. No set minimum as long as the equipment receives adequate cooling and damage protection.
B. 3 inches with the seat unoccupied.
C. 1 inch with the seat occupied and subjected to maximum downward seat spring deflection.

O.8.6.9.7.A.1 O03
The purpose of a glideslope system is to
A. indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of the runway.
B. assist the pilot in making a correct angle of descent to the runway.
C. provide for automatic altitude reporting to air traffic control.

P.8.6.9.8.A.1 P01
Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished
A. by gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and overboard through a common outlet in each wing.
B. through individual outlets for each tank.
C. through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.

P.8.6.9.9.A.1 P01
The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a
A. lower landing weight.
B. reduced fire hazard.
C. balanced fuel load.

P.8.7.0.0.A.1 P01
(1) The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow flight personnel to close the valve during any part of the jettisoning operation.
(2) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must discharge clear of any part of the airplane.
Regarding the above statements,
A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

P.8.7.0.1.A.1 P01
Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral stability when jettisoning fuel?
A. Crossfeed system.
B. Two interconnected systems.
C. Two separate independent systems.

P.8.7.0.2.B.1 P01
A fuel jettison system is required under certain conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the requirements of fuel jettisoning?
A. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 43 and 91.
B. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25 and CAM 4b.
C. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 21, 43 and CAM 8.

P.8.7.0.3.A.1 P01
Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems by
A. gravity.
B. boost pumps.
C. gravity and engine driven fuel pumps.

P.8.7.0.4.A.1 P01
Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by
A. dump limit valves or a low level circuit.
B. standpipes in the fuel tanks.
C. closely monitoring the fuel quantity and turning off the fuel dump switch(es).

P.8.7.0.5.A.1 P02
Which procedure must be followed when defueling aircraft with sweptback wings?
A. Defuel all the tanks at one time.
B. Defuel the outboard wing tanks first.
C. Defuel the inboard wing tanks first.

P.8.7.0.6.A.1 P02
(Refer to figure 17.) What is the purpose of the pump crossfeed valve?
A. Balance the fuel in the tanks.
B. Allow operation of engines from one tank.
C. Allow operation of the left engine when the right fuel boost pump is inoperative.

P.8.7.0.7.A.1 P02
Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine aircraft
A. reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during fueling or defueling operations.
B. provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel load condition.
C. calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct lateral instability.

P.8.7.0.8.A.1 P02
What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?
A. To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any desired level.
B. To allow the feeding of any engine from any tank.
C. To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for defueling.

P.8.7.0.9.A.1 P02
Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in order to
A. retard galvanic corrosion.
B. drain off static charges.
C. prevent stray currents.

P.8.7.1.0.A.1 P02
A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system allows how many of the following?
1. All tanks can be serviced through a single connection.
2. Any engine can be fed from any tank.
3. All engines can be fed from all tanks simultaneously.
4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the fuel system.
A. Three.
B. Two.
C. Four.

P.8.7.1.1.A.1 P02
The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in some problems not normally associated with aviation gasolines. One of these problems is
A. microbial contaminants.
B. increasing viscosity of fuel as fuel temperature lowers at altitude.
C. higher vapor pressure.

P.8.7.1.2.A.1 P02
What is used in many aircraft to prevent bubbles in the fuel after it leaves the tank when atmospheric pressure is lower than fuel vapor pressure?
A. Air fuel separators.
B. Boost pumps.
C. Anti-foaming additives.

P.8.7.1.3.A.1 P03
Which of the following precautions is most important during refueling operations?
A. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.
B. All electrical switches must be in OFF position.
C. All outside electrical sources must be disconnected from the aircraft.

P.8.7.1.4.A.1 P03
Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling method, what important precaution should be observed?
A. The truck pump pressure must be adjusted for minimum filter pressure.
B. The aircraft's electrical system must be on to indicate quantity gauge readings.
C. The truck pump pressure must be correct for that refueling system.

P.8.7.1.5.A.1 P03
What flight safety related advantage does a pressure fueling system provide?
A. Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.
B. Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance limitations.
C. Reduces the time required for fueling.

P.8.7.1.6.A.1 P03
Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional procedures are normally placarded on the
A. lower wing surface adjacent to the access door.
B. fuel control panel access door.
C. aircraft ground connection point.

P.8.7.1.7.A.1 P03
Pressure fueling of aircraft is usually accomplished through
A. at least one single point connection.
B. individual fuel tank overwing and/or fuselage access points.
C. pressure connections on individual fuel tanks.

P.8.7.1.8.A.1 P04
Which of the following may be used for the repair of fuel leaks on most integral fuel tanks?
A. Riveting and resealing.
B. Brazing and resealing.
C. Welding and resealing.

P.8.7.1.9.A.1 P04
How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a submerged, single speed, centrifugal type fuel pump?
A. By the first check valve downstream from the pump.
B. By the pump's design and internal clearances.
C. By the engine driven pump's design and internal clearance.

P.8.7.2.0.A.1 P04
What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent?
A. To decrease tank internal air pressure.
B. To decrease fuel vapor pressure.
C. To maintain atmospheric pressure.

P.8.7.2.1.B.1 P04
When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks, what procedure should be followed?
A. pressurize the tank with air and submerge in water to locate leaks.
B. pressurize the tank with air and brush with soapy water.
C. full the tank with water and pressurize with air and brush with soapy water.

P.8.7.2.2.A.1 P04
If it is necessary to enter an aircraft's fuel tank, which procedure should be avoided?
A. Conduct the defueling and tank purging operation in an air conditioned building.
B. Continue purging the tank during the entire work period.
C. Station an assistant outside the fuel tank access to perform rescue operations if required.

P.8.7.2.3.A.1 P04
What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel tank before welding?
A. Steam clean the tank interior.
B. Flush the inside of the tank with clean water.
C. Purge the tank with air.

P.8.7.2.4.A.1 P04
An aircraft's integral fuel tank is
A. a part of the aircraft structure.
B. usually located in the bottom of the fuselage.
C. a self sealing tank.

P.8.7.2.5.A.1 P04
Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?
A. Carbon monoxide.
B. Helium or argon.
C. Carbon dioxide.

P.8.7.2.6.A.1 P04
Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system?
A. It filters and traps all micro organisms that may be present in the fuel system.
B. It provides a drain for residual fuel.
C. It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system.

P.8.7.2.7.A.1 P04
The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane type fuel pump is to
A. compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.
B. vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting.
C. equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.

P.8.7.2.8.A.1 P04
When moving the mixture control on a normally operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine RPM should
A. slightly increase before the engine starts to die.
B. remain the same until the cutoff is effected, then drop rapidly.
C. slightly decrease and then drop rapidly.

P.8.7.2.9.A.1 P04
Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes through the filters. What are common methods of preventing this hazard?
A. Micromesh fuel strainers and fuel heater.
B. Anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater.
C. High-velocity fuel pumps and fuel heater.

P.8.7.3.0.A.1 P04
Fuel leaks are usually classified as a stain, a seep, a heavy seep, or a running leak. As a general rule,
A. stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards.
B. all fuel leaks regardless of location or severity are considered a hazard to flight.
C. stains, seeps, and heavy seeps, (in addition to running leaks) are considered flight hazards when located in unvented areas of the aircraft.

P.8.7.3.1.A.1 P04
The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would indicate
A. clogged fuel nozzle.
B. excessive airflow across the venturi.
C. too much fuel pressure.

P.8.7.3.2.A.1 P04
What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank before attempting repairs?
A. CO2.
B. Steam.
C. Water.

P.8.7.3.3.A.1 P04
What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum tank after welded repairs?
A. Soft brush and warm water.
B. 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.
C. Mild solution of soap and warm water.

P.8.7.3.4.A.1 P04
What method would be used to check for internal leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve from the aircraft?
A. Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side of the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the valve.
B. Place the valve in the OFF position, drain the strainer bowl, and with boost pump on, watch to see if fuel flows to the strainer bowl.
C. Remove fuel cap(s), turn boost pump(s) on, and watch for bubbling in the tanks.

P.8.7.3.5.A.1 P04
Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline?
A. Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is more easily suspended.
B. Condensation is greater because of the higher volatility of jet fuels.
C. Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.

P.8.7.3.6.A.1 P04
When installing a rigid fuel line, 1/2 inch in diameter, at what intervals should the line be supported?
A. 12 inches.
B. 16 inches.
C. 24 inches.

P.8.7.3.7.A.1 P05
The probe of a capacitance type fuel level gauge is essentially a
A. float actuated variable capacitor.
B. capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate.
C. capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.

P.8.7.3.8.A.1 P05
The capacitance type (electronic) fuel quantity indicator
A. has no moving parts in the tank.
B. has two tubes separated by a mica dielectric in the tank.
C. utilizes a float operated variable capacitor.

P.8.7.3.9.A.1 P05
What type of remote reading fuel quantity indicating system has several probes installed in each fuel tank?
A. Direct reading.
B. Electromechanical.
C. Electronic.

P.8.7.4.0.A.1 P05
Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system incorporates a signal amplifier?
A. Electrical.
B. Sight glass.
C. Electronic.

P.8.7.4.1.A.1 P05
A drip gauge may be used to measure
A. the amount of fuel in the tank.
B. system leakage with the system shut down.
C. fuel pump diaphragm leakage.

P.8.7.4.2.A.1 P05
The electronic type fuel quantity indicating system consists of a bridge circuit,
A. an amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit.
B. a tank, an amplifier, and an indicator.
C. a tank unit, a tank, and an amplifier.

P.8.7.4.3.A.1 P05
A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel quantity indicating system?
A. Capacitor.
B. Synchro.
C. Selsyn.

P.8.7.4.4.B.1 P05
Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system more accurate in measuring fuel level than a mechanical type?
A. It measures by weight instead of volume.
B. Only one probe and one indicator are necessary for multiple tank configurations.
C. It measures in gallons and converts to pounds.

P.8.7.4.5.A.1 P05
One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that
A. the indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no conversion is necessary.
B. only one transmitter and one indicator are needed regardless of the number of tanks.
C. several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.

P.8.7.4.6.A.1 P05
A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the
A. total amount of fuel being consumed by all engines.
B. amount of fuel in any given tank.
C. amount of fuel in all tanks.

P.8.7.4.7.A.1 P05
What is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in a capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system?
A. Outer shell of the capacitor.
B. Fuel in the tank.
C. Fuel and air in the tank.

P.8.7.4.8.A.1 P05
A capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system measures fuel in
A. pounds per hour.
B. pounds.
C. gallons.

P.8.7.4.9.A.1 P05
What are the four general types of fuel quantity gauges?
1. Sight glass.
2. Mechanical.
3. Electrical.
4. Electronic.
5. Bourdon tube.
6. Vane type transmitter.
7. Litmus indicator.
8. Direct reading static pressure type.
A. 2, 3, 5, 7.
B. 1, 3, 6, 8.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4.

P.8.7.5.0.A.1 P05
How does temperature affect fuel weight?
A. Warm fuel is heavier per gallon.
B. Temperature has no effect.
C. Cold fuel is heavier per gallon.

P.8.7.5.1.A.1 P05
One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that the indicator
A. can be located any distance from the tank(s).
B. always measures volume instead of mass.
C. has no movable devices.

P.8.7.5.2.A.1 P05
When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of gallons, the measurement will be more accurate because fuel volume
A. increases when temperature decreases.
B. varies with temperature change.
C. varies with changes in atmospheric pressure.

P.8.7.5.3.A.1 P05
An electrical type fuel quantity indicating system consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a
A. float operated transmitter installed in the tank.
B. float operated receiver installed in the tank.
C. float resting on the surface of the tank.

P.8.7.5.4.A.1 P05
What is the purpose of a float operated transmitter installed in a fuel tank?
A. It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity indicator.
B. It senses the dielectric qualities of fuel and air in the tank.
C. It senses the total amount of fuel density.

P.8.7.5.5.A.1 P05
In an electronic type fuel quantity indicating system, the tank sensing unit is a
A. variable resistor.
B. capacitor.
C. variable inductor.

P.8.7.5.6.A.1 P05
What must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated to read during level flight when the quantity of fuel remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply?
A. Zero.
B. Both the total unusable fuel quantity and the unusable fuel quantity in each tank.
C. The total unusable fuel quantity.

P.8.7.5.7.A.1 P06
What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel pressure warning limits?
A. Fuel pressure relief valve.
B. Fuel flowmeter bypass valve.
C. Pressure sensitive mechanism.

P.8.7.5.8.A.1 P06
Select one means of controlling the fuel temperature on turbine-powered aircraft.
A. Engine bleed air to the fuel filter.
B. Engine bleed air to a heat exchanger.
C. Engine bleed air to the fuel tank.

P.8.7.5.9.A.1 P06
What is the purpose of flapper type check valves in integral fuel tanks?
A. To allow the engine driven pumps to draw fuel directly from the tank if the boost pump fails.
B. To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pumps.
C. To allow defueling of the tanks by suction.

P.8.7.6.0.A.1 P06
What unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure warning system?
A. Pressure sensitive mechanism.
B. Fuel pressure gauge.
C. Fuel flowmeter.

P.8.7.6.1.A.1 P06
What method is used on turbine powered aircraft to determine when the condition of the fuel is approaching the danger of forming ice crystals?
A. Fuel temperature indicator.
B. Fuel pressure gauge.
C. Fuel pressure warning.

P.8.7.6.2.A.1 P06
Which of the following would give the first positive indication that a change over from one fuel tank to another is needed?
A. Fuel quantity indicator.
B. Fuel pressure gauge.
C. Fuel pressure warning.

P.8.7.6.3.A.1 P06
A fuel pressure warning switch contacts close and warning light is turned on when
A. the fuel flow stops.
B. the fuel pressure drops below specified limits.
C. a measured quantity of fuel has passed through it.

P.8.7.6.4.A.1 P06
A transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system serves what function?
A. Transmits an electrical signal to fluid pressure.
B. Transmits fluid pressure directly to the indicator.
C. Converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal.

P.8.7.6.5.A.1 P06
Where is fuel pressure taken for the pressure warning signal on most aircraft engines?
A. Between the fuel pump and the strainer.
B. Fuel pressure line of the carburetor.
C. Outlet side of the boost pump.

P.8.7.6.6.A.1 P06
Which of the following is necessary to effectively troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system?
A. A set of Federal Aviation Regulations.
B. The manufacturer's maintenance manuals.
C. AC 43.13-1A, Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices 3/4 Aircraft Inspection and Repair.

P.8.7.6.7.A.1 P06
Which of the following would be most useful to locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel system?
A. Illustrated parts manual.
B. Aircraft structure repair manual.
C. A fuel system schematic.

P.8.7.6.8.A.1 P06
In some aircraft with several fuel tanks, the possible danger of allowing the fuel supply in one tank to become exhausted before the selector valve is switched to another tank is prevented by the installation of
A. a fuel pressure warning signal system.
B. an engine fuel pump bypass valve.
C. a fuel pressure relief valve.

P.8.7.6.9.A.1 P06
(1) The function of a fuel heater is to protect the engine fuel system from ice formation.
(2) An aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in the fuel screen.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

P.8.7.7.0.A.1 P06
(1) Gas turbine engine fuel systems are very susceptible to the formation of ice in the fuel filters.
(2) A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to warm the fuel.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

P.8.7.7.1.A.1 P06
(1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source of heat.
(2) A fuel heater can use engine lubricating oil as a source of heat.
Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. only No. 1 is true.
C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

P.8.7.7.2.A.1 P06
(1) A fuel pressure gauge is a differential pressure indicator.
(2) A fuel pressure gauge indicates the pressure of the fuel entering the carburetor.
Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

P.8.7.7.3.A.1 P06
(1) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft positive displacement fuel pump.
(2) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft centrifugal fuel boost pump.
Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. only No. 1 is true.

P.8.7.7.4.A.1 P07
The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a
A. place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank can collect and be drained.
B. positive system of maintaining the design minimum fuel supply for safe operation.
C. reserve supply of fuel to enable the aircraft to land safely in the event of fuel exhaustion.

P.8.7.7.5.A.1 P07
Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large aircraft?
A. To facilitate servicing.
B. To reduce weight.
C. To reduce fire hazards.

P.8.7.7.6.A.1 P07
If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank which is known to be uncontaminated with dirt or water, periodic checks of the aircraft's fuel tank sumps and system strainers
A. are still necessary due to the possibility of contamination from other sources.
B. can be eliminated except for the strainer check before the first flight of the day and the fuel tank sump check during 100-hour or annual inspections.
C. can be sharply reduced since contamination from other sources is relatively unlikely and of little consequence in modern aircraft fuel systems.

P.8.7.7.7.A.1 P07
Aircraft defueling should be accomplished
A. with the aircraft's communication equipment on and in contact with the tower in case of fire.
B. in a hangar where activities can be controlled.
C. in the open air for good ventilation.

P.8.7.7.8.A.1 P07
Integral fuel tanks are
A. usually constructed of nonmetallic material.
B. readily removed from the aircraft.
C. formed by the aircraft structure.

P.8.7.7.9.A.1 P07
What precautions must be observed if a gravity feed fuel system is permitted to supply fuel to an engine from more than one tank at a time?
A. Each tank must have a valve in its outlet that automatically shuts off the line when the tank is empty.
B. The fuel outlet ports of each tank must have the same cross sectional area.
C. The tank airspaces must be interconnected.

P.8.7.8.0.A.1 P07
The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to
A. resist fuel surging within the fuel tank.
B. provide internal structural integrity.
C. provide an expansion space for the fuel.

P.8.7.8.1.A.1 P07
What minimum required markings must be placed on or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility category aircraft?
A. The word "Avgas" and the minimum fuel grade or designation for the engines, and the usable fuel tank capacity.
B. The word "Avgas" and the minimum fuel grade, and the total fuel tank capacity.
C. The word "Avgas" and the minimum fuel grade .

P.8.7.8.2.A.1 P07
What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation fuels?
A. Results in low fuel volatility.
B. A fuel intercooler is required.
C. Deteriorates rubber parts.

P.8.7.8.3.A.1 P07
Fuel boost pumps are operated
A. automatically from fuel pressure.
B. primarily for fuel transfer.
C. to provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.

P.8.7.8.4.A.1 P07
Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to
A. act as check valves.
B. reduce pressure.
C. prevent a negative pressure.

P.8.7.8.5.A.1 P07
Why are centrifugal type boost pumps used in fuel systems of aircraft operating at high altitude?
A. To permit cooling air to circulate around the motor.
B. To supply fuel under pressure to engine driven pumps.
C. Because they are positive displacement pumps.

P.8.7.8.6.A.1 P07
Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks?
A. To ensure a positive head pressure for a submerged boost pump.
B. To exhaust fuel vapors.
C. To limit pressure differential between the tank and atmosphere.

P.8.7.8.7.B.1 P07
According to Part 23, what minimum required markings must be placed at or near each appropriate fuel filler cover for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes?
A. The word "Avgas" and the minimum fuel grade.
B. The word "Fuel" and usable fuel capacity.
C. The word "Avgas" and the total fuel capacity.

P.8.7.8.8.A.1 P07
The location of leaks and defects within the internal portions of the fuel system can usually be determined by
A. observing the pressure gauge and operating the selector valves.
B. visual inspection for evidence of wet spots and stains, and feeling for unusually warm components.
C. performing a fuel flow check.

P.8.7.8.9.A.1 P07
What type of fuel booster pump requires a pressure relief valve?
A. Centrifugal.
B. Sliding vane.
C. Concentric.

P.8.7.9.0.A.1 P07
To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude, some aircraft are equipped with
A. vapor separators.
B. booster pumps.
C. direct injection type carburetors.

P.8.7.9.1.A.1 P07
A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel tanks on some turbine powered airplanes to tell when the fuel may be
A. about to form rime ice.
B. getting cold enough to form hard ice.
C. in danger of forming ice crystals.

P.8.7.9.2.A.1 P07
When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all valves located downstream of boost pumps with the pumps
A. operating.
B. dormant.
C. at idle.

P.8.7.9.3.A.1 P07
The type of fuel boost pump that separates air and vapor from the fuel before it enters the line to the carburetor is the
A. gear type pump.
B. centrifugal type pump.
C. sliding vane type pump.

P.8.7.9.4.A.1 P07
(1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks of an aircraft.
(2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more advantages to a pressure fueling system in light aircraft.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

P.8.7.9.5.B.1 P07
When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted fittings the line should
A. have a flexible line added between two metal lines to allow for ease of installation.
B. have at least one bend between such fittings.
C. be a straight length of tubing and clamped to the aircraft structure.

P.8.7.9.6.A.1 P07
(1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel flow.
(2) A measure of a gasoline's tendency to vapor lock is obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 2 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

P.8.7.9.7.A.1 P07
Microbial growth is produced by various forms of micro organisms that live and multiply in the water interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could result if microbial growth exists in a jet fuel tank and is not corrected?
1. Interference with fuel flow.
2. Interference with fuel quantity indicators.
3. Engine seizure.
4. Electrolytic corrosive action in a metal tank.
5. Lower grade rating of the fuel.
6. Electrolytic corrosive action in a rubber tank.
A. 2, 3, 5.
B. 1, 5, 6.
C. 1, 2, 4.

P.8.7.9.8.A.1 P07
The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is
A. lower than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline.
B. approximately 20 PSI at 100 캟.
C. higher than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline.

P.8.7.9.9.A.1 P07
What can be done to eliminate or minimize the microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?
A. Use anti icing and antibacterial additives.
B. Keep the fuel tank topped off.
C. Add CO2 as a purgative.

P.8.8.0.0.A.1 P07
What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an aircraft fuel?
A. 7 PSI.
B. 3 PSI.
C. 5 PSI.

P.8.8.0.1.A.1 P07
If a bladder type fuel tank is to be left empty for an extended period of time, the inside of the tank should be coated with a film of
A. ethylene glycol.
B. engine oil.
C. linseed oil.

P.8.8.0.2.A.1 P07
How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be improved?
A. By adding a knock enhancer.
B. By adding a knock inhibitor.
C. By adding a fungicide agent.

Q.8.8.0.3.A.1 Q01
Some electric motors have two sets of field windings wound in opposite directions so that the
A. speed of the motor can be more closely controlled.
B. motor can be operated in either direction.
C. power output of the motor can be more closely controlled.

Q.8.8.0.4.A.1 Q01
One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of
A. an out of round commutator.
B. a broken field lead.
C. a shorted armature.

Q.8.8.0.5.A.1 Q01
Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications must be what type?
A. Ring.
B. Hook.
C. Slotted.

Q.8.8.0.6.A.1 Q01
What is the principal advantage of the series wound dc motor?
A. Suitable for constant speed use.
B. High starting torque.
C. Low starting torque.

Q.8.8.0.7.A.1 Q01
If a generator is equipped with a vibrator type voltage regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator points remain open
A. is controlled by the reverse current cutout relay point clearance.
B. depends on the load carried by the generator.
C. is increased when the external load is greater than the generator output.

Q.8.8.0.8.A.1 Q01
What is a cause of generator brush arcing?
A. Low spring tension.
B. Carbon dust particles.
C. Seating brushes with No. 000 sandpaper.

Q.8.8.0.9.A.1 Q01
When ac generators are operated in parallel, the
A. amperes and voltage must both be equal.
B. amperes and frequency must both be equal.
C. frequency and voltage must both be equal.

Q.8.8.1.0.A.1 Q01
The starting current of a series wound dc motor, in passing through both the field and armature windings, produces a
A. low starting torque.
B. speed slightly higher when unloaded.
C. high starting torque.

Q.8.8.1.1.A.1 Q01
Which motor would be most likely to have an armature brake?
A. Inverter drive motor.
B. Starter motor.
C. Landing light retraction motor.

Q.8.8.1.2.A.1 Q01
The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the use of
A. drum wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected series field.
B. interpoles.
C. shaded poles.

Q.8.8.1.3.A.1 Q01
The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
A. strength of the magnetic field.
B. number of conductors in the armature.
C. speed at which the armature rotates.

Q.8.8.1.4.A.1 Q01
The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator are a part of the
A. armature assembly.
B. field assembly.
C. brush assembly.

Q.8.8.1.5.A.1 Q01
How many cycles of ac voltage are produced in a six pole alternator of the revolving field type for each revolution of the rotor?
A. Six.
B. Four.
C. Three.

Q.8.8.1.6.A.1 Q01
If the reverse current cutout relay contact points fail to open after the generator output has dropped below battery potential, current will flow through the generator armature
A. opposite the normal direction and through the shunt field in the normal direction.
B. in the normal direction and through the shunt field opposite the normal direction.
C. and the shunt field opposite the normal direction.

Q.8.8.1.7.A.1 Q01
How does the magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an electric motor armature operate?
A. A friction brake is applied by a spring and released by a magnet.
B. A friction brake is applied by a magnet and released by a spring.
C. Centrifugal force releases a rotating brake cog from a stationary notch when the armature reaches a certain speed and magnetic force re engages the cog when the electrical power is turned off.

Q.8.8.1.8.A.1 Q01
In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes within the holder?
A. Brush spring tension.
B. The brush pigtail.
C. Undercutting the mica on the commutator.

Q.8.8.1.9.A.1 Q01
A series wound dc electric motor will normally require
A. more current at high RPM than at low RPM.
B. approximately the same current throughout its operating range of speed.
C. more current at low RPM than at high RPM.

Q.8.8.2.0.A.1 Q01
The type of electric wire terminals used for most aircraft applications, in addition to providing good current carrying capabilities, are designed primarily
A. to prevent circuit failure due to terminal disconnection.
B. for permanent connection to the circuit.
C. for uncomplicated and rapid circuit connection and disconnection.

Q.8.8.2.1.A.1 Q01
Aluminum wire must be stripped very carefully because
A. high resistance will develop in stripping nicks.
B. stripping nicks can cause short circuits.
C. individual strands will break easily after being nicked.

Q.8.8.2.2.A.1 Q01
The commutator of a generator
A. changes direct current produced in the armature into alternating current as it is taken from the armature.
B. changes alternating current produced in the armature into direct current as it is taken from the armature.
C. reverses the current in the field coils at the proper time in order to produce direct current.

Q.8.8.2.3.A.1 Q01
An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the
A. rate of current used to charge the battery.
B. amperage available for use.
C. total amperes being used in the airplane.

Q.8.8.2.4.A.1 Q01
Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?
A. Reduce arcing at the brushes.
B. Reduce field strength.
C. Overcome armature reaction.

Q.8.8.2.5.A.1 Q01
To test generator or motor armature windings for opens,
A. check adjacent segments on commutator with an ohmmeter on the high resistance scale.
B. use a 12/24V test light between the armature core segments and the shaft.
C. place armature in a growler and connect a 110V test light on adjacent segments; light should light.

Q.8.8.2.6.B.1 Q01
What is the color and orientation of the position lights for navigation on civil airplanes?
A. Left side - white, right side - green, rear aft - red.
B. Left side - red, right side - green, rear aft - white.
C. Left side - green, right side - red, rear aft - white.

Q.8.8.2.7.A.1 Q01
To what depth is the mica insulation between the commutator bars of a dc generator undercut?
A. Equal to twice the width of the mica.
B. Equal to the width of the mica.
C. One half the width of the mica.

Q.8.8.2.8.A.1 Q01
A voltage regulator controls generator output by
A. introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead in the event of overload.
B. shorting out field coil in the event of overload.
C. varying current flow to generator field coil.

Q.8.8.2.9.A.1 Q01
Which type of dc generator is not used as an airplane generator?
A. Compound wound.
B. Externally grounded.
C. Series wound.

Q.8.8.3.0.A.1 Q01
What is the most accurate type of frequency measuring instrument?
A. Electrodynamometers using electromagnetic fields.
B. Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit.
C. Electromagnets using one permanent magnet.

Q.8.8.3.1.A.1 Q01
During ground operation, aircraft generator cooling is usually accomplished by
A. auxiliary air cooled through an air/fuel heat exchanger.
B. an integral fan.
C. an external motor-driven fan.

Q.8.8.3.2.A.1 Q01
What does a rectifier do?
A. Changes direct current into alternating current.
B. Reduces voltage.
C. Changes alternating current into direct current.

Q.8.8.3.3.A.1 Q01
What type of instrument is used for measuring very high values of resistance?
A. Shunt type ohmmeter.
B. Multimeter.
C. Megohmmeter.

Q.8.8.3.4.A.1 Q01
When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a short circuit, it should be
A. checked with a milliamp ammeter.
B. in the circuit.
C. disconnected from the circuit.

Q.8.8.3.5.A.1 Q01
When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it
A. is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.
B. has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit.
C. has a full charge before removing it from the circuit.

Q.8.8.3.6.A.1 Q01
Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery?
A. Constant current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
B. A high internal resistance condition.
C. Excessive current draw from the battery.

Q.8.8.3.7.A.1 Q01
How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together?
A. The output voltage will be high.
B. The transformer will get hot in normal operation.
C. Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter.

Q.8.8.3.8.A.1 Q01
Which of the following are the major parts of a dc motor?
1. Armature assembly.
2. Field assembly.
3. Brush assembly.
4. Commutator.
5. Pole piece.
6. Rheostat.
7. End frame.
A. 2, 3, 4, 5.
B. 3, 5, 6, 7.
C. 1, 2, 3, 7.

Q.8.8.3.9.A.1 Q01
(1) There are three basic types of dc motors; series, shunt, and compound.
(2) In the series motor, the field windings, consisting of relatively few turns of heavy wire, are connected in series with the armature winding.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 2 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 1 is true.

Q.8.8.4.0.A.1 Q01
For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by
A. crimping.
B. soldering.
C. crimping and soldering.

Q.8.8.4.1.A.1 Q01
Which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the wire size to use for an aircraft installation?
1. Mechanical strength.
2. Allowable power loss.
3. Ease of installation.
4. Resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure.
5. Permissible voltage drop.
6. Current carrying capability of the conductor.
7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
A. 1, 2, 4, 5.
B. 2, 4, 6, 7.
C. 2, 5, 6, 7.

Q.8.8.4.2.A.1 Q01
When selecting hardware for attaching bonding connections to an aircraft structure, which of the following should be considered?
1. Mechanical strength.
2. Allowable power loss.
3. Ease of installation.
4. Permissible voltage drop.
5. Amount of current to be carried.
6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
A. 1, 3, 5.
B. 1, 2, 3.
C. 4, 5, 6.

Q.8.8.4.3.A.1 Q01
How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle?
A. Enclosed in a conduit.
B. Grouped together to facilitate inspection.
C. Staggered along the length of the bundle.

Q.8.8.4.4.A.1 Q01
What is the minimum bend radius for an electrical wire bundle?
A. Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle.
B. Fifteen times the outside diameter of the bundle.
C. Five times the outside diameter of the bundle.

Q.8.8.4.5.A.1 Q01
When approved, splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is
A. three.
B. two.
C. one.

Q.8.8.4.6.A.1 Q01
AN/MS electrical connectors are specifically designed to meet
A. International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standards.
B. Technical Standard Order (TSO) specifications.
C. military specifications.

Q.8.8.4.7.A.1 Q01
The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by
A. crimping and soldering.
B. crimping.
C. soldering.

Q.8.8.4.8.A.1 Q01
The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on
A. either side of a circuit (makes no difference).
B. the ground side of a circuit.
C. the power supply side of a circuit.

Q.8.8.4.9.A.1 Q01
The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by controlling the
A. voltage output of the dc exciter.
B. speed of the alternator.
C. resistance in the rotor windings.

Q.8.8.5.0.A.1 Q02
If several long lengths of electrical cable are to be installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of damage to the cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be reduced by
A. applying a light coat of dielectric grease.
B. dusting the cable with powdered graphite.
C. dusting the cable with powdered soapstone.

Q.8.8.5.1.A.1 Q02
Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary structure. One purpose of grounding is to
A. prevent development of radio frequency potentials.
B. prevent current return paths.
C. allow static charge accumulation.

Q.8.8.5.2.A.1 Q02
What is normally used to bond noncontinuous stainless steel aircraft components?
A. Aluminum jumpers.
B. Stainless steel jumpers.
C. Copper jumpers.

Q.8.8.5.3.A.1 Q02
Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in
A. volts.
B. amperes.
C. ohms.

Q.8.8.5.4.A.1 Q02
When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected in
A. parallel with the light.
B. series parallel with the light switch.
C. series with the light.

Q.8.8.5.5.A.1 Q02
Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency or whose inadvertent activation could endanger a system frequently employ
A. guarded switches.
B. push-pull-type circuit breakers only (no switches).
C. spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker switches.

Q.8.8.5.6.A.1 Q02
If one switch is used to control all navigation lights, the lights are most likely connected
A. parallel to each other and in series with the switch.
B. in series with each other and in series with the switch.
C. in series with each other and parallel to the switch.

Q.8.8.5.7.A.1 Q02
Oil canning of the sides of aluminum or steel electrical junction boxes is considered to be
A. normal operation in vibration prone areas.
B. acceptable operation.
C. a shorting hazard.

Q.8.8.5.8.A.1 Q02
Electric wiring installed in aircraft without special enclosing means (open wiring) offers the advantages of ease of installation, simple maintenance, and reduced weight. When bundling open wiring, the bundles should
A. be limited as to the number of cables to minimize damage from a single electrical fault.
B. include at least one shielded cable to provide good bonding of the bundle to the airframe.
C. be limited to a minimum bend radius of five times the bundle diameter to avoid excessive stresses on the cable insulation.

Q.8.8.5.9.A.1 Q02
During inspection of the terminal strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be determined that
A. only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used for terminal attachment to the studs.
B. only locknuts have been used for terminal attachment to the studs.
C. the terminal studs are anchored against rotation.

Q.8.8.6.0.A.1 Q02
What protection to wires and cables does conduit provide when used in aircraft installations?
A. Mechanical.
B. Structural.
C. Electromagnetic.

Q.8.8.6.1.B.1 Q02
Which of the following should be accomplished in the installation of aircraft wiring?
A. Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle to compensate for large changes in temperature.
B. Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and securely clamp to structure.
C. Support the bundle to structure and/ or solid fluid lines to prevent chafing damage.

Q.8.8.6.2.A.1 Q02
If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to the (-) terminal of the source voltage and the (-) terminal of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the source voltage, the voltmeter will read
A. correctly.
B. low voltage.
C. backwards.

Q.8.8.6.3.A.1 Q02
When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit resistance, the
A. input voltage must be maintained at a constant value.
B. output voltage must be maintained at a constant value.
C. input voltage must be varied.

Q.8.8.6.4.A.1 Q02
The nominal rating of electrical switches refers to continuous
A. current rating with the contacts closed.
B. current rating with the contacts open.
C. voltage rating with the contacts closed.

Q.8.8.6.5.A.1 Q02
Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone are usually constructed of
A. stainless steel.
B. cadmium plated steel.
C. asbestos.

Q.8.8.6.6.B.1 Q02
To help minimize radio interference a capacitor will largely eliminate and provide a steady direct current if the capacitor is connected to the generator in
A. parallel.
B. series.
C. series/ parallel.

Q.8.8.6.7.A.1 Q02
The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are
A. the voltage and amperage of the load it must carry.
B. the system voltage and cable length.
C. current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.

Q.8.8.6.8.A.1 Q02
The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of a single circuit controlled by a single switch which has an ON position and an OFF position, with no additional positions possible. This switch is referred to as a
A. single pole, single throw (SPST), two position switch.
B. double pole, single throw (DPST), two position switch.
C. single pole, double throw (SPDT), two position switch.

Q.8.8.6.9.A.1 Q02
Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of
A. thermocouples.
B. shunts.
C. fuses.

Q.8.8.7.0.A.1 Q02
How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wiring?
A. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with stringers or ribs.
B. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible.
C. Coaxial cables are routed at right angles to stringers or ribs.

Q.8.8.7.1.A.1 Q02
Which of the following copper electrical cable sizes should be selected to replace a No. 6 aluminum electrical cable?
A. No. 6.
B. No. 8.
C. No. 4.

Q.8.8.7.2.A.1 Q02
In installations where the ammeter is in the generator or alternator lead, and the regulator system does not limit the maximum current that the generator or alternator can deliver, the ammeter can be redlined at what percent of the generator or alternator rating?
A. 75.
B. 100.
C. 50.

Q.8.8.7.3.A.1 Q02
Which statement relating to electric wiring is true?
A. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric cable, it should be determined that the strength of the cable to terminal joint is at least twice the tensile strength of the cable.
B. All electric cable splices should be covered with soft insulating tubing (spaghetti) for mechanical protection against external abrasion.
C. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric cable, it should be determined that the strength of the cable to terminal joint is at least equal to the tensile strength of the cable itself.

Q.8.8.7.4.A.1 Q02
Bonding connections should be tested for
A. reactance.
B. amperage value.
C. resistance value.

Q.8.8.7.5.A.1 Q02
What kind of switch should you install in a single wire circuit that required the switch to be manually held in the ON position?
A. Single pole, single throw (SPST), two position normally open (NO).
B. Single pole, single throw (SPST), single-position.
C. Single pole, double throw (SPDT), single-position normally open (NO).

Q.8.8.7.6.A.1 Q02
A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to protect the
A. circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible.
B. electrical unit in the circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible.
C. circuit and should be located as close to the unit as possible.

Q.8.8.7.7.A.1 Q02
How should a voltmeter be connected?
A. In series with the load.
B. In parallel with the load.
C. In series with the source.

Q.8.8.7.8.B.1 Q02
A circuit protection device called a current limiter is essentially a slow-blow fuse and is designed to be used in
A. starter-generator circuits.
B. heavy power circuits.
C. 400 cycle AC circuits.

Q.8.8.7.9.A.1 Q02
If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic should
A. coat the connector with grease.
B. spray the connector with varnish or zinc chromate.
C. use a special moisture proof type.

Q.8.8.8.0.B.1 Q02
The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are
A. circuit breakers, fuses, and current limiters.
B. circuit breakers, resistors, and current limiters.
C. circuit breakers, capacitors, and current limiter plug-ins mechanical reset types.

Q.8.8.8.1.A.1 Q02
If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some moving parts, what protection should be given the wire?
A. Wrap with friction tape.
B. Pass through conduit.
C. Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield.

Q.8.8.8.2.A.1 Q02
In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers used to designate electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a size is related to its
A. cross sectional area.
B. combined resistance and current carrying capacity.
C. current carrying capacity.

Q.8.8.8.3.A.1 Q02
What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation?
Use the formula VD = RLA
VD = Voltage drop
R = Resistance per ft = .00644
L = Length of wire
A = Amperes
A. 1/2V.
B. 1V.
C. 4V.

Q.8.8.8.4.A.1 Q02
What is the purpose of the selection of derated switches for known continuous load current applications?
A. To calculate the voltage drop across the circuit.
B. To prevent short circuits in the motor field windings.
C. To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life.

Q.8.8.8.5.A.1 Q02
What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when compared to a fuse?
A. Always eliminates the need of a switch.
B. Never needs replacing.
C. Resettable and reusable.

Q.8.8.8.6.A.1 Q02
What is the advantage of a current limiter?
A. It can be reset easily.
B. It breaks circuit quickly.
C. It will take overload for a short period.

Q.8.8.8.7.A.1 Q02
Where electric cables must pass through holes in bulkheads, formers, ribs, firewalls, etc., the wires should be protected from chafing by
A. wrapping with electrical tape.
B. using a suitable grommet.
C. wrapping with plastic.

Q.8.8.8.8.A.1 Q02
In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers
A. should not be used as circuit protective devices.
B. must be used in all circuits essential to safe operation of the aircraft.
C. are useful where only temporary overloads are normally encountered.

Q.8.8.8.9.A.1 Q02
A certain switch is described as a single pole, double throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch indicates the number of
A. circuits each pole can complete through the switch.
B. terminals at which current can enter or leave the switch.
C. places at which the operating device (toggle, plunger, etc.) will come to rest and at the same time open or close a circuit.

Q.8.8.9.0.A.1 Q02
When considering an alteration, the criteria upon which the selection of electric cable size should be based are
A. current carrying capacity and applied voltage.
B. current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.
C. applied voltage and allowable voltage drop.

Q.8.8.9.1.A.1 Q02
What is an important factor in selecting aircraft fuses?
A. The voltage rating should be lower than the maximum circuit voltage.
B. The current exceeds a predetermined value.
C. Capacity matches the needs of the circuit.

Q.8.8.9.2.A.1 Q02
The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system protects the
A. wiring from too much current.
B. wiring from too much voltage.
C. lights from too much current.

Q.8.8.9.3.A.1 Q03
One advantage of using ac electrical power in aircraft is
A. that ac electrical motors can be reversed while dc motors cannot.
B. that the effective voltage is 1.41 times the maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less power input is required.
C. greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down.

Q.8.8.9.4.A.1 Q03
Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?
A. To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
B. To increase the core permeability.
C. To reduce the core reluctance.

Q.8.8.9.5.A.1 Q03
Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical power for all normal operation and battery furnished dc electrical power for standby emergency use. In aircraft of this type that operate no dc generators, the batteries are kept charged by
A. rectifiers which use the aircraft's ac generators as a source of power.
B. alternators which use the aircraft's generators as a source of power.
C. inverters which use the aircraft's ac generators as a source of power.

Q.8.8.9.6.A.1 Q03
The voltage in an ac transformer secondary that contains twice as many loops as the primary will be
A. greater and the amperage less than in the primary.
B. less and the amperage greater than in the primary.
C. greater and the amperage greater than in the primary.

Q.8.8.9.7.A.1 Q03
If the positive field lead between a generator and a generator control panel breaks and is shorted while the engine is running, a voltmeter connected to generator output would indicate
A. normal voltage.
B. residual voltage.
C. zero voltage.

Q.8.8.9.8.A.1 Q03
What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism?
A. Energize the armature.
B. Flash the fields.
C. Reseat the brushes.

Q.8.8.9.9.B.1 Q03
The major advantages of alternating current (AC) over direct current (DC) is the fact that its current and voltage can easily be increased or decreased
A. by means of a inverter.
B. by means of a transformer.
C. by means of a rectifier.

Q.8.9.0.0.A.1 Q03
Which of the following must be accomplished when installing an anticollision light?
A. Install a switch independent of the position light switch.
B. Connect the anticollision light to the aircraft position light switch.
C. Use shielded electrical cable to assure fail safe operation.

Q.8.9.0.1.A.1 Q03
The inductor type inverter output voltage is controlled by the
A. dc stator field current.
B. voltage regulator.
C. number of poles and the speed of the motor.

Q.8.9.0.2.A.1 Q03
When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should
A. show very low resistance if it is a series field coil.
B. be removed from the generator housing.
C. show high resistance when the meter prods are connected to the terminals of the coil.

Q.8.9.0.3.A.1 Q03
The strength of the core of an electromagnet depends upon the material from which it is constructed and which of the following?
A. The size (cross section) and the number of turns of wire in the coil and the applied voltage.
B. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the applied voltage.
C. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the amount of current (amperes) passing through the coil.

Q.8.9.0.4.A.1 Q03
A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by changing the
A. current in the generator output circuit.
B. resistance of the generator field circuit.
C. resistance in the generator output circuit.

Q.8.9.0.5.A.1 Q03
The overvoltage control automatically protects the generator system when excessive voltage is present by
A. opening and resetting the field control relay.
B. breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field control relay.
C. opening the shunt field circuit.

Q.8.9.0.6.A.1 Q03
When dc generators are operated in parallel to supply power for a single load, their controls include an equalizer circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally. The equalizer circuit operates by
A. decreasing the output of the high generator to equal the output of the low generator.
B. increasing the output of the low generator and decreasing the output of the high generator until they are equal.
C. increasing the output of the low generator to equal the output of the high generator.

Q.8.9.0.7.B.1 Q03
What is the maximum amount of time a circuit can be in operation and still be an intermittent duty circuit?
A. Two minutes.
B. One minute.
C. Three minutes.

Q.8.9.0.8.A.1 Q03
The most common method of regulating the voltage output of a compound dc generator is to vary the
A. current flowing through the shunt field coils.
B. resistance of the series field circuit.
C. total effective field strength by changing the reluctance of the magnetic circuit.

Q.8.9.0.9.A.1 Q03
(Refer to figure 18.) Which of the batteries are connected together incorrectly?
A. 3.
B. 1.
C. 2.

Q.8.9.1.0.A.1 Q03
(Refer to figure 19.) Upon completion of the landing gear extension cycle, the green light illuminated and the red light remained lit. What is the probable cause?
A. Short in the up limit switch.
B. Short in the gear safety switch.
C. Short in the down limit switch.

Q.8.9.1.1.A.1 Q03
If any one generator in a 24-volt dc system shows low voltage, the most likely cause is
A. a defective reverse current cutout relay.
B. shorted or grounded wiring.
C. an out of adjustment voltage regulator.

Q.8.9.1.2.A.1 Q03
How can the direction of rotation of a dc electric motor be changed?
A. Interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power source.
B. Reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.
C. Rotate the positive brush one commutator segment.

Q.8.9.1.3.A.1 Q03
Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators) as a primary source of electrical power normally provide current suitable for battery charging through the use of
A. a stepdown transformer and a rectifier.
B. a dynamotor with a half wave dc output.
C. an inverter and a voltage dropping resistor.

Q.8.9.1.4.A.1 Q03
During inspection of an anticollision light installation for condition and proper operation, it should be determined that
A. electrical or mechanical interconnections are provided so that the anticollision light will operate at all times that the position light switch is in the ON position.
B. an appropriately rated fuse is in position at the light to protect the connecting wiring against electrical faults.
C. the anticollision light can be operated independently of the position lights.

Q.8.9.1.5.A.1 Q03
Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators, contactors, and inverters are best accomplished outside the airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and equipment. Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by
A. the equipment manufacturer.
B. aircraft technical orders.
C. the FAA.

Q.8.9.1.6.A.1 Q03
A battery generator system provides direct current. On installations requiring alternating current from the battery generator system, it is necessary to have
A. a variable resistor between the battery and generator.
B. a transformer.
C. an inverter.

Q.8.9.1.7.A.1 Q03
A relay is
A. a magnetically operated switch.
B. any conductor which receives electrical energy and passes it on with little or no resistance.
C. a device which converts electrical energy to kinetic energy.

Q.8.9.1.8.A.1 Q03
The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to change
A. direct current to alternating current.
B. alternating current to direct current.
C. the frequency of alternating current.

Q.8.9.1.9.A.1 Q03
What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a transformer designed to triple its input voltage?
A. Primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary.
B. Primary will have one third as many turns as its secondary.
C. Primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary.

Q.8.9.2.0.A.1 Q03
In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which is true?
A. Real power is greater than apparent power.
B. Real power is zero.
C. Real power equals apparent power.

Q.8.9.2.1.A.1 Q03
How are generators rated?
A. Amperes at rated voltage.
B. Watts at rated voltage.
C. The impedance at rated voltage.

Q.8.9.2.2.A.1 Q03
How is a shunt wound dc generator connected?
A. One field is shunted across the other.
B. The field and armature are shunted with a capacitor.
C. Both fields are shunted across the armature.

Q.8.9.2.3.A.1 Q03
The poles of a generator are laminated to
A. increase flux concentration.
B. reduce flux losses.
C. reduce eddy current losses.

Q.8.9.2.4.A.1 Q03
What is the frequency of an alternator dependent upon?
A. RPM.
B. Voltage.
C. Current.

Q.8.9.2.5.A.1 Q03
The generator rating is usually found stamped on the
A. engine.
B. firewall.
C. generator.

Q.8.9.2.6.A.1 Q03
Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the
A. field shoes.
B. armature.
C. field windings.

Q.8.9.2.7.A.1 Q03
In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter is properly connected across a circuit component and some value of resistance is read,
A. either the component or the circuit is shorted.
B. the component has continuity and is not open.
C. the component has continuity and is open.

Q.8.9.2.8.A.1 Q04
CSD driven generators are usually cooled by
A. both ram air and an integral fan.
B. an integral fan.
C. oil spray.

Q.8.9.2.9.A.1 Q04
A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of
A. a variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor.
B. a synchronous electric motor.
C. an infinitely variable mechanical gearing system.

Q.8.9.3.0.C.1 Q04
Integrated drive generators (IDG) employ a type of high output ac generator that utilizes
A. a brushless system to produce current.
B. brushes and slip rings to carry generated dc exciter current to the rotating field.
C. battery current to excite the field.

Q.8.9.3.1.B.1 Q04
If the IDG scavenge oil filter is contaminated with chunks or pieces of metal
A. replace the oil and filter at 25 hour intervals.
B. change the oil at 25 hour intervals.
C. remove and replace the IDG.

Q.8.9.3.2.A.1 Q04
When necessary during operation, CSD disconnect is usually accomplished by
A. a shear section in the input shaft.
B. a switch in the cockpit.
C. circuit breaker activation.

Q.8.9.3.3.A.1 Q04
A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a malfunction such as overtemperature, may be reconnected
A. manually by the flightcrew.
B. automatically if the temperature falls back into the normal operating range.
C. only on the ground by maintenance personnel.

R.8.9.3.4.A.1 R01
The purpose of antiskid generators is to
A. measure wheel rotational speed and any speed changes.
B. monitor hydraulic pressure applied to brakes.
C. indicate when a tire skid occurs.

R.8.9.3.5.A.1 R01
In a brake antiskid system, when an approaching skid is sensed, an electrical signal is sent to the skid control valve which
A. relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake.
B. acts as a bypass for the debooster cylinders.
C. equalizes the hydraulic pressure in adjacent brakes.

R.8.9.3.6.A.1 R01
An antiskid system is
A. a hydraulic system.
B. an electrical system.
C. an electrohydraulic system.

R.8.9.3.7.A.1 R01
Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by
A. the rotation of the wheels above a certain speed.
B. a centrifugal switch.
C. a switch in the cockpit.

R.8.9.3.8.A.1 R01
A typical takeoff warning indication system, in addition to throttle setting, monitors the position of which of the following?
A. Ailerons, elevators, speed brake, and steerable fuselage landing gear.
B. Elevators, speed brake, flaps, and stabilizer trim.
C. Aerodynamically actuated slats, elevators, flaps, and speed brake.

R.8.9.3.9.A.1 R01
The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is activated by
A. a thrust lever.
B. an 80 knot airspeed sensor.
C. an ignition system switch not set for takeoff.

R.8.9.4.0.A.1 R01
(1) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pitot and static air pressures surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight.
(2) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pitot and cabin air pressures at any moment of flight.
Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. only No. 1 is true.

R.8.9.4.1.A.1 R01
The angle of attack detector operates from differential pressure when the airstream
A. is parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
B. is not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft.
C. is parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft.

R.8.9.4.2.A.1 R01
(1) When an airplane is slowed below approximately 20 MPH, the antiskid system automatically deactivates to give the pilot full control of the brakes for maneuvering and parking.
(2) An antiskid system consists basically of three components; wheel speed sensors, control box, and control valves.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

R.8.9.4.3.A.1 R01
In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by
A. a sudden rise in brake pressure.
B. a discriminator.
C. an electrical sensor.

R.8.9.4.4.A.1 R01
Which of the following functions does a skid control system perform?
1. Normal skid control.
2. Normal braking.
3. Fail safe protection.
4. Locked wheel skid control.
5. Touchdown protection.
6. Takeoff protection.
A. 1, 2, 5, 6.
B. 1, 3, 4, 5.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4.

R.8.9.4.5.B.1 R01
In the air with the antiskid armed, current cannot flow to the antiskid control box because
A. landing gear squat switch is open.
B. landing gear down and lock switch is open.
C. landing gear antiskid valves are open.

R.8.9.4.6.A.1 R01
At what point in the landing operation does normal skid control perform its function?
A. When wheel rotation deceleration indicates an impending skid.
B. Anytime the wheel is rotating.
C. When wheel rotation indicates hydroplaning condition.

R.8.9.4.7.A.1 R01
(1) An antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to operate just below the skid point.
2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the antiskid system is turned off or if there is a system failure.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

R.8.9.4.8.A.1 R01
When an airplane's primary flight control surfaces are set for a particular phase of flight, such as landing or takeoff, the corresponding control-surface indicating system will show
A. speed break position.
B. flap/slat position.
C. trim position.

R.8.9.4.9.A.1 R01
The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in some light aircraft is activated by
A. positive air pressure.
B. static air pressure.
C. negative air pressure.

R.8.9.5.0.A.1 R01
Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall
A. is starting to occur.
B. first affects the outboard portions of the wings.
C. is imminent.

R.8.9.5.1.A.1 R02
(Refer to figure 19.) What is the indication of the red landing gear position light under the following conditions?
Aircraft on jacks.
Landing gear in transit.
Warning horn sounding.
A. flashing.
B. illuminated.
C. extinguished.

R.8.9.5.2.A.1 R02
(Refer to figure 19). Which repair should be made if the gear switch was placed in UP position and the gear does not retract?
A. Replace electrical wire No. 15.
B. Replace the down limit switch.
C. Replace electrical wire No. 12.

R.8.9.5.3.A.1 R02
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to sound?
A. Landing gear locked down and throttle retarded.
B. Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded.
C. Landing gear locked down and throttle advanced.

R.8.9.5.4.A.1 R02
(Refer to figure 20.) What will illuminate the amber indicator light?
A. Closing the nosewheel gear full retract switch.
B. Retarding one throttle and closing the left wheel gear locked down switch.
C. Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full retract switches.

R.8.9.5.5.A.1 R02
(Refer to figure 20.) What is the minimum circumstance that will cause the landing gear warning horn to indicate an unsafe condition?
A. Any gear not down and locked, and one throttle retarded.
B. All gears up and one throttle retarded.
C. Any gear up and both throttles retarded.

R.8.9.5.6.A.1 R02
Where is the landing gear safety switch usually located?
A. On the pilot's control pedestal.
B. On the main gear shock strut.
C. On the landing gear drag brace.

R.8.9.5.7.A.1 R02
What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?
A. Downlock switch.
B. Ground safety switch.
C. Uplock switch.

R.8.9.5.8.A.1 R02
Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?
A. Red warning light bulb.
B. Landing gear safety switch.
C. Gear downlock microswitch.

R.8.9.5.9.A.1 R02
Landing gear warning systems usually provide which of the following indications?
A. Green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear.
B. Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear down, no light for gear up.
C. Red light for unsafe gear, no light for gear down, green light for gear up.

R.8.9.6.0.A.1 R02
In most modern hydraulically actuated landing gear systems, the order of gear and fairing door operation is controlled by
A. sequence valves.
B. microswitches.
C. shuttle valves.

R.8.9.6.1.A.1 R02
What landing gear warning device(s) is/are incorporated on retractable landing gear aircraft?
A. A light which comes on when the gear is fully down and locked.
B. A horn or other aural device and a red warning light.
C. A visual indicator showing gear position.

R.8.9.6.2.A.1 R02
When a landing gear safety switch on a main gear strut closes at liftoff, which system is deactivated?
A. Antiskid system.
B. Aural warning system.
C. Landing gear position system.

R.8.9.6.3.A.1 R02
The rotor in an autosyn remote indicating system uses
A. neither an electromagnet nor a permanent magnet.
B. an electromagnet.
C. a permanent magnet.

R.8.9.6.4.A.1 R02
The basic difference between an autosyn and a magnesyn indicating system is the
A. rotor.
B. transmitter.
C. receiver.

R.8.9.6.5.A.1 R02
The rotor in a magnesyn remote indicating system uses
A. an electromagnet.
B. an electromagnet and a permanent magnet.
C. a permanent magnet.

R.8.9.6.6.A.1 R02
Microswitches are used primarily as limit switches to
A. prevent overcharging of a battery.
B. control electrical units automatically.
C. limit generator output.

R.8.9.6.7.A.1 R02
Which of the following are some uses for a dc selsyn system?
1. Indicates position of retractable landing gear.
2. Indicates the angle of incidence of an aircraft.
3. Indicates the altitude of an aircraft.
4. Indicates cowl flaps or oil cooler door position.
5. Indicates fuel quantity.
6. Indicates the rate of climb of an aircraft.
7. Indicates position of wing flaps.
A. 2, 3, 5, 6.
B. 2, 3, 4, 5.
C. 1, 4, 5, 7.

R.8.9.6.8.A.1 R02
(1) A dc selsyn system is a widely used electrical method of indicating a remote mechanical movement or position.
(2) A synchro type indicating system is an electrical system used for transmitting information from one point to another.
Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. only No. 1 is true.

S.8.9.6.9.A.1 S01
When installing pneumatic surface-bonded type deicer boots,
A. apply a solution of glycerin and water between the rubber and the wing skin.
B. apply a silastic compound between the boot and the wing skin.
C. remove all paint from the area to be covered by the deicer boot.

S.8.9.7.0.A.1 S01
Which of the following are found in a laminated integral electrically heated windshield system?
1. Autotransformer.
2. Heat control relay.
3. Heat control toggle switch.
4. 24V dc power supply.
5. Indicating light.
A. 2, 3, 4, 5.
B. 1, 2, 3, 5.
C. 1, 2, 4, 5.

S.8.9.7.1.A.1 S01
What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?
A. Ammeter reading.
B. Continuity check of system.
C. Voltmeter reading.

S.8.9.7.2.A.1 S01
What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?
A. Vacuum pump.
B. Shuttle valve.
C. Distributor valve.

S.8.9.7.3.A.1 S01
What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?
A. Vane type pump.
B. Piston type pump.
C. Gear type pump.

S.8.9.7.4.A.1 S01
Which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is off?
A. Distributor valve.
B. Pressure regulator.
C. Suction relief valve.

S.8.9.7.5.A.1 S01
What may be used to clean deicer boots?
A. Unleaded gasoline or Jet A fuel.
B. Naphtha.
C. Soap and water.

S.8.9.7.6.A.1 S01
Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is this type of anti ice system usually operated during flight?
A. Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur.
B. In symmetric cycles during icing conditions to remove ice as it accumulates.
C. Continuously while the aircraft is in flight.

S.8.9.7.7.A.1 S01
Which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer system?
A. Pressure and vacuum gauges will fluctuate as the deicer boots inflate and deflate.
B. Relatively steady readings on the pressure gauge and fluctuating readings on the vacuum gauge.
C. Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the vacuum gauge.

S.8.9.7.8.A.1 S01
What method is usually employed to control the temperature of an anti icing system using surface combustion heaters?
A. Thermostats in the cockpit.
B. Heater fuel shutoff valves.
C. Thermo cycling switches.

S.8.9.7.9.A.1 S01
What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a deicing system utilizing deicer boots?
A. To sequence the deicer boots inflations symmetrically.
B. To distribute anti-icing fluid to the deicer boots.
C. To equalize the air pressure to the left and right wings.

S.8.9.8.0.A.1 S01
What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system?
A. To prevent an accumulation of oil in the vacuum system.
B. To remove oil from air exhausted from the deicer boots.
C. To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration.

S.8.9.8.1.A.1 S01
Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated windshields?
A. Imbedded in the glass.
B. Around the glass.
C. Attached to the glass.

S.8.9.8.2.A.1 S01
Two possible sources of heat for the operation of a wing thermal anti-icing system are
A. compressor bleed air, aircraft electrical system.
B. first stage of the aircycle turbine, turbo compressor .
C. combustion heater, exhaust gases.

S.8.9.8.3.A.1 S01
What maintains normal windshield temperature control in an electrically heated windshield system?
A. Thermistors.
B. Electronic amplifiers.
C. Thermal overheat switches.

S.8.9.8.4.A.1 S01
Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown in the
A. temperature sensing elements.
B. conductive coating.
C. autotransformers.

S.8.9.8.5.A.1 S01
Which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer boots when the systems is not in operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in flight?
A. Distributor valve.
B. Ejector.
C. Vacuum relief valve.

S.8.9.8.6.A.1 S01
How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations?
A. By allowing only a thin layer of ice to build up.
B. By preventing the formation of ice.
C. By breaking up ice formations.

S.8.9.8.7.A.1 S01
Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?
A. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not disturb airflow.
B. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minimum.
C. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump.

S.8.9.8.8.A.1 S01
Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods?
A. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air.
B. Electrically heating air intake, ethylene glycol spray, or alcohol spray.
C. Alcohol spray and heated induction air.

S.8.9.8.9.A.1 S01
Why should a chemical rain repellant not be used on a dry windshield?
A. It will cause glass crazing.
B. It will etch the glass.
C. It will restrict visibility.

S.8.9.9.0.A.1 S01
What is the principle of a windshield pneumatic rain removal system?
A. An air blast spreads a liquid rain repellant evenly over the windshield that prevents raindrops from clinging to the glass surface.
B. A pneumatic rain removal system is simply a mechanical windshield wiper system that is powered by pneumatic system pressure.
C. An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield surface.

S.8.9.9.1.A.1 S01
What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to remove frost from an aircraft surface?
A. Methyl ethyl ketone and ethylene glycol.
B. Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol.
C. Naphtha and isopropyl alcohol.

S.8.9.9.2.A.1 S01
Which of the following is the best means to use when removing wet snow from an aircraft?
A. Hot air.
B. Warm water.
C. A brush or a squeegee.

S.8.9.9.3.A.1 S01
What are three methods of anti icing aircraft windshields?
1. Blanket type heating system.
2. An electric heating element in the windshield.
3. Heated air circulating system.
4. Hot water system.
5. Windshield wipers and anti icing fluid.
6. Ribbon type heating system.
A. 2, 3, 4.
B. 2, 3, 5.
C. 1, 2, 6.

S.8.9.9.4.A.1 S01
What icing condition may occur when there is no visible moisture present?
A. Injector ice.
B. Carburetor ice.
C. Inlet ice.

S.8.9.9.5.A.1 S01
What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine engine if the compressor is immobile because of ice?
A. Anti icing fluid.
B. Deicing fluid.
C. Hot air.

S.8.9.9.6.A.1 S01
What is used as a temperature sensing element in an electrically heated windshield?
A. Thermometer.
B. Thermistor.
C. Thermocouple.

T.8.9.9.7.A.1 T01
In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?
A. Engine and/or nacelle.
B. Surface combustion heater compartment.
C. Cockpit and/or cabin.

T.8.9.9.8.A.1 T01
What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?
A. A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically.
B. The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is provided automatically.
C. A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically.

T.8.9.9.9.A.1 T01
The types of fire extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are
A. water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, and halogenated hydrocarbons.
B. water, dry chemical, methyl bromide, and chlorobromomethane.
C. water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical.

T.9.0.0.0.A.1 T01
When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color?
A. Blue.
B. Green.
C. Red.

T.9.0.0.1.A.1 T01
Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of
A. detection.
B. construction.
C. maintenance.

T.9.0.0.2.A.1 T01
Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called
A. visual devices.
B. electromechanical devices.
C. photoelectrical devices.

T.9.0.0.3.A.1 T01
A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by
A. installing a new indicating element.
B. evacuating the indicating element with CO2.
C. heating the indicating element to 300 캟 to reactivate the chemical.

T.9.0.0.4.A.1 T01
Which fire detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
A. Lindberg continuous element.
B. Fenwal continuous loop.
C. Thermocouple.

T.9.0.0.5.A.1 T01
A carbon dioxide (CO2) hand held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the
A. horn is nonmagnetic.
B. horn is nonmetallic.
C. handle is insulated.

T.9.0.0.6.A.1 T01
The proper fire extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is
A. dry powder chemical.
B. water.
C. carbon dioxide.

T.9.0.0.7.A.1 T01
Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument?
A. Chemical reactor.
B. Photoelectric cell.
C. Sniffer.

T.9.0.0.8.A.1 T01
Light refraction smoke detectors
A. sense light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber.
B. use radiation induced ionization to detect the presence of smoke.
C. measure a reduction in the amount of visible or infrared light in the surrounding area.

T.9.0.0.9.A.1 T01
Why does the Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits?
A. A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.
B. A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction.
C. This installation is equal to two systems: a main system and a reserve system.

T.9.0.1.0.A.1 T02
A fire extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by
A. attaching a remote pressure gauge.
B. weighing the container and its contents.
C. a hydrostatic test.

T.9.0.1.1.A.1 T02
What is the color code for fire extinguisher lines?
A. Brown.
B. Yellow.
C. Red and green.

T.9.0.1.2.A.1 T02
The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous loop fire detection systems is
A. dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections.
B. moisture.
C. improper routing or clamping of loops.

T.9.0.1.3.A.1 T02
A thermocouple in a fire detection system causes the warning system to operate because
A. heat decreases its electrical resistance.
B. it expands when heated and forms a ground for the warning system.
C. it generates a small current when heated.

T.9.0.1.4.A.1 T02
The thermocouple fire warning system is activated by a
A. certain temperature.
B. core resistance drop.
C. rate of temperature rise.

T.9.0.1.5.A.1 T02
When used in fire detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in
A. series with each other and parallel with the light.
B. parallel with each other and in series with the light.
C. series with each other and the light.

T.9.0.1.6.A.1 T02
Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with
A. sodium bicarbonate and nitrogen.
B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
C. halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen

T.9.0.1.7.A.1 T02
In reference to aircraft fire extinguishing systems,
(1) during removal or installation, the terminals of discharge cartridges should be grounded or shorted.
(2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical system, the system should be checked with a voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections.
Regarding the above statements,
A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. only No. 2 is true.

T.9.0.1.8.A.1 T02
What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built in fire extinguisher system?
A. A discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in the thermal discharge line.
B. A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line.
C. The thermal plug missing from the side of the bottle.

T.9.0.1.9.A.1 T02
The thermal switches of a bimetallic thermal switch type fire detection system are heat sensitive units that complete circuits at a certain temperature. They are connected in
A. series with each other, but in parallel with the indicator lights.
B. parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights.
C. parallel with each other, and in parallel with the indicator lights.

T.9.0.2.0.A.1 T02
(Refer to figure 21.) Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG. (Consider 330 PSIG for both minimum and maximum pressure.)
A. 47 to 71 캟.
B. 47 to 73 캟.
C. 45 to 73 캟.

T.9.0.2.1.B.1 T02
(Refer to figure 21.) Determine what pressure is acceptable for a fire extinguisher when the surrounding area temperature is 33 캟. (Rounded to the nearest whole number.)
A. 215 to 302 PSIG.
B. 214 to 301 PSIG.
C. 215 to 301 PSIG.

T.9.0.2.2.A.1 T02
On a periodic check of fire extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed?
A. Release pressure if above limits.
B. Replace the extinguisher container.
C. Increase pressure if below limits.

T.9.0.2.3.A.1 T02
In some fire extinguishing systems, evidence that the system has been intentionally discharged is indicated by the absence of a
A. red disk on the side of the fuselage.
B. yellow disk on the side of the fuselage.
C. green disk on the side of the fuselage.

T.9.0.2.4.A.1 T02
If a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason, it
A. cannot be used again.
B. must be pressure checked.
C. is recommended that the cartridge be used only on the original discharge valve assembly.

T.9.0.2.5.A.1 T02
Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen system?
1. Display ``No Smoking'' placards.
2. Provide adequate fire fighting equipment.
3. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease.
4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.
A. 1, 3, and 4.
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4.
C. 1, 2, and 4.

T.9.0.2.6.A.1 T02
Which fire extinguishing agent is considered to be the least toxic?
A. Bromochloromethane (Halon 1011).
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).

T.9.0.2.7.A.1 T02
Maintenance of fire detection systems includes the
A. removal of excessive loop or element material.
B. repair of damaged sensing elements.
C. replacement of damaged sensing elements.

T.9.0.2.8.A.1 T02
A squib, as used in a fire protection system, is a
A. temperature sensing device.
B. probe used for installing frangible disks in extinguisher bottles.
C. device for causing the fire extinguishing agent to be released.